A nurse in a pediatric behavioral unit is assessing a 6-year-old child who has been exhibiting regressive behaviors such as thumb-sucking clinging to the parent and expressing jealousy toward a newborn sibling. According to Freud's stages of psychosexual development, which of the following interpretations is most consistent with the child's behavior?
The child is in the phallic stage and is displaying typical Oedipal conflict and rivalry.
The child is fixated at the oral stage and is seeking oral gratification due to unmet early needs.
The child is experiencing regression to the anal stage, often marked by control and defiance.
The child is in the latency stage, and the regression suggests unresolved earlier conflicts.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. The phallic stage typically occurs between ages 3–6 and involves Oedipal or Electra conflicts, but this scenario focuses more on regressive behavior than rivalry or sexual identity formation.
B. While thumb-sucking is related to oral-stage behavior (0–18 months), this child is not fixated but regressing, which is common during stress or major life changes (e.g., birth of a sibling).
C. The anal stage (1–3 years) is associated with control and autonomy, often seen in behaviors like toilet training resistance—not the behaviors described here.
D. A 6-year-old is in the latency stage (6–12 years), characterized by socialization and skill development. The described behaviors indicate regression to earlier stages (oral and dependency behaviors), which is common in response to emotional stress and suggests unresolved earlier conflicts.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. While documentation may be helpful, immediately advising legal action may overwhelm the client and compromise trust if they are not ready.
B. Urging the client to leave immediately may ignore their sense of readiness or fear, which could reduce engagement or increase danger.
C. Offering nonjudgmental support and information about the cycle of abuse promotes both safety and autonomy by helping the client make informed, empowered decisions.
D. Couples counseling is inappropriate in cases of intimate partner violence, as it may place the victim at further risk and shift blame.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition) provides a standardized classification system with specific diagnostic criteria used by clinicians to diagnose mental health conditions reliably and consistently.
B. Evaluating pharmacologic therapy effectiveness is not the DSM-5’s purpose; that is part of clinical research and treatment planning, not diagnosis.
C. The DSM-5 does not prescribe treatment protocols—it is strictly a diagnostic manual.
D. While the DSM-5 considers biological and environmental influences, it does not classify disorders based on genetic findings.
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