A nurse in a prenatal clinic is determining a client's estimated date of delivery using Naegele's rule. The first day of her last menstrual period was May 8. Which of the following dates should the nurse tell the client is her estimated date of delivery?
April 27.
April 11.
February 15
February 1
The Correct Answer is C
The estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele's rule is _.
Step 1: Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. May 8 + 7 days = May 15
Step 2: Count 3 months back. May - 3 months = February
Step 3: Adjust the year if necessary. The year remains the same.
The estimated date of delivery is February 15 of the following year.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A:
Rh incompatibility is not directly identified through amniocentesis. Instead, it's typically assessed through blood tests that determine a woman's Rh factor and screen for Rh antibodies.
However, amniocentesis can provide information that might be relevant to Rh incompatibility, such as the fetal Rh type. If the mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive, there's a risk of Rh incompatibility.
Choice B:
Amniocentesis can detect neural tube defects (NTDs) like spina bifida and anencephaly.
It does this by measuring the levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid. AFP is a protein produced by the fetal liver, and elevated levels in the amniotic fluid can indicate an NTD.
Choice C:
Amniocentesis can accurately determine the fetal gender by examining the sex chromosomes present in the cells of the amniotic fluid.
Choice D:
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is a condition where the baby's head is too large to fit through the mother's pelvis. It's not diagnosed through amniocentesis.
CPD is usually suspected based on clinical findings like a slow progression of labor or a high fetal station, and it might be confirmed with imaging techniques like X-ray or ultrasound.
Choice E:
Amniocentesis is a valuable tool for diagnosing chromosomal defects, such as Down syndrome, Trisomy 18, and Trisomy 13. It does this by analyzing the chromosomes of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A:
Purpose of the Biophysical Profile (BPP): The BPP is a non-invasive test that combines ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring to assess fetal well-being, specifically in the third trimester of pregnancy. It evaluates five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate reactivity. Each parameter is assigned a score of 0 or 2, resulting in a total score of 0 to 10. A score of 8 or 10 is generally considered reassuring of fetal well-being, while a score of 6 or below may warrant further evaluation or intervention.
Timing of BPP: It's typically performed in the third trimester, often after 32 weeks of gestation, when the fetus has developed regular sleep-wake cycles and breathing movements.
Risk Assessment: It's often recommended for pregnancies considered high-risk, such as those with: Maternal diabetes
Preeclampsia
Decreased fetal movement Past stillbirth
Multiple gestation
Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) Post-term pregnancy (over 42 weeks)
Choice B:
IV initiation is not a routine part of BPP: Intravenous (IV) access is not typically required for a BPP. The test involves external monitoring of fetal heart rate and ultrasound imaging, which do not necessitate IV access.
Choice C:
NPO status is not necessary: The client does not need to be NPO (nothing by mouth) for a BPP. There are no dietary restrictions or fasting requirements for this test.
Choice D:
BPP does not determine the estimated date of birth: The primary purpose of the BPP is to assess fetal well-being, not to determine the estimated date of delivery (EDD). The EDD is typically established based on the last menstrual period or early ultrasound measurements.
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