A nurse is caring for a female client scheduled to have a pelvic exam. The client tells the nurse, “I’m really nervous.
I’ve never had a pelvic exam before.” Which of the following is an appropriate therapeutic response by the nurse?
A pelvic exam is required if you want birth control pills
Don't worry, I will stay in there with you for the exam
All you need to do is relax during the exam
Tell me more about your concerns
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale for Choice A:
A pelvic exam is required if you want birth control pills. This response is not therapeutic because it dismisses the client's feelings and does not address her concerns. It focuses on the policy or requirement rather than the client's emotional needs. It could make the client feel like her anxiety is not justified or that she has no choice in the matter.
Rationale for Choice B:
Don't worry, I will stay in there with you for the exam. While this response may be intended to provide reassurance, it does not fully address the client's underlying concerns. It offers a solution without first exploring the specific reasons for the client's anxiety. It could also make the client feel dependent on the nurse's presence for comfort, rather than empowering her to manage her own anxiety.
Rationale for Choice C:
All you need to do is relax during the exam. This response is not therapeutic because it minimizes the client's feelings and suggests that she can simply control her anxiety by relaxing. It does not acknowledge the validity of her concerns or provide any guidance on how to manage those concerns. It could make the client feel like her anxiety is her fault or that she is not coping well.
Rationale for Choice D:
Tell me more about your concerns. This is the most therapeutic response because it encourages the client to express her feelings and concerns openly. It validates the client's experience and demonstrates active listening and empathy. It provides an opportunity for the nurse to gather more information about the specific reasons for the client's anxiety and to tailor interventions accordingly. It also empowers the client by allowing her to share her thoughts and take control of the conversation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A: Visual disturbances
Preeclampsia: Visual disturbances, such as blurred vision or seeing spots, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. It typically develops after 20 weeks of gestation and can progress rapidly.
Potential complications: If left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to seizures (eclampsia), stroke, liver and kidney failure, premature birth, and even death of the mother or baby.
Prompt reporting: Early recognition and management of preeclampsia are crucial for preventing adverse outcomes. Therefore, visual disturbances should be reported to the provider immediately to initiate further assessment and potential interventions.
Rationale for Choice B: Fetal heart rate
No indication for reporting: While monitoring fetal heart rate is essential during pregnancy, the promptness of reporting it to the provider depends on specific concerns. In this case, the fetal heart tones are documented as 1, suggesting a normal rate and rhythm. There's no immediate indication for reporting it as a concerning finding.
Rationale for Choice C: Blood pressure
Hypertension: High blood pressure is a key feature of preeclampsia. Although blood pressure readings are not provided in the scenario, the nurse should measure and report them to the provider, as hypertension is a critical finding that could necessitate further evaluation and treatment.
Rationale for Choice D: Deep tendon reflexes
Hyperreflexia: The client's deep tendon reflexes are 3+, which is considered hyperreflexia. Hyperreflexia can be a neurological sign of preeclampsia, indicating increased excitability of the nervous system. It's important to report this finding to the provider for further assessment and monitoring.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A:
Purpose of the Biophysical Profile (BPP): The BPP is a non-invasive test that combines ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring to assess fetal well-being, specifically in the third trimester of pregnancy. It evaluates five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate reactivity. Each parameter is assigned a score of 0 or 2, resulting in a total score of 0 to 10. A score of 8 or 10 is generally considered reassuring of fetal well-being, while a score of 6 or below may warrant further evaluation or intervention.
Timing of BPP: It's typically performed in the third trimester, often after 32 weeks of gestation, when the fetus has developed regular sleep-wake cycles and breathing movements.
Risk Assessment: It's often recommended for pregnancies considered high-risk, such as those with: Maternal diabetes
Preeclampsia
Decreased fetal movement Past stillbirth
Multiple gestation
Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) Post-term pregnancy (over 42 weeks)
Choice B:
IV initiation is not a routine part of BPP: Intravenous (IV) access is not typically required for a BPP. The test involves external monitoring of fetal heart rate and ultrasound imaging, which do not necessitate IV access.
Choice C:
NPO status is not necessary: The client does not need to be NPO (nothing by mouth) for a BPP. There are no dietary restrictions or fasting requirements for this test.
Choice D:
BPP does not determine the estimated date of birth: The primary purpose of the BPP is to assess fetal well-being, not to determine the estimated date of delivery (EDD). The EDD is typically established based on the last menstrual period or early ultrasound measurements.
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