A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant about expected changes related to pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
It’s normal to have a white vaginal discharge.
I should recognize fetal movement by 12 weeks.
My nipples and areola will become pale as my breasts enlarge.
The fundus is responsible for the swelling in my ankles.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
It’s normal to have a white vaginal discharge during pregnancy. This is due to increased estrogen levels, which stimulate the production of cervical mucus. The mucus is typically white or clear, and has a mild odor. It helps to maintain a healthy vaginal environment and protect against infection.
Increased vaginal discharge is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy, and it typically continues throughout the pregnancy. While it may be bothersome at times, it is not a cause for concern unless it has a strong odor, is yellow or green in color, or is accompanied by itching or burning.
It is important for pregnant women to keep the vaginal area clean and dry to prevent infection. This can be done by wearing cotton underwear, avoiding tight-fitting clothing, and showering or bathing regularly.
Choice B rationale:
Most women do not recognize fetal movement until 16 to 22 weeks of pregnancy. This is because the fetus is still very small and its movements are not strong enough to be felt.
Some women may feel fluttering or "butterflies" in their abdomen as early as 12 weeks, but this is not always a reliable indication of fetal movement. It is more likely to be caused by gas or intestinal activity.
Choice C rationale:
The nipples and areola typically become darker, not paler, during pregnancy. This is due to increased levels of melanin, a pigment that is also responsible for skin color.
The darkening of the nipples and areola may be more pronounced in women with darker skin.
Choice D rationale:
The fundus is the top of the uterus. It does not cause swelling in the ankles.
Swelling in the ankles is a common symptom of pregnancy, especially in the third trimester. It is caused by a combination of factors, including increased blood volume, fluid retention, and pressure from the growing uterus on the veins in the legs.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A:
Mood swings are a common and expected symptom of early pregnancy due to hormonal changes. They typically do not require medical attention unless they become severe or interfere with daily life.
While it's important to discuss mood swings with a healthcare provider, they are not considered a critical symptom that necessitates immediate action.
Choice C:
Urinary frequency, or the need to urinate more often, is also a common symptom of early pregnancy. It's caused by hormonal changes and the growing uterus putting pressure on the bladder.
While it can be inconvenient, it's typically not a cause for concern unless accompanied by other symptoms, such as pain or burning during urination.
Choice D:
Decreased energy, or fatigue, is another common and expected symptom of early pregnancy.
It's often caused by hormonal changes and the body's increased workload to support the growing fetus.
While it can be frustrating, it's typically not a cause for concern unless it becomes severe or interferes with daily life.
Choice B:
Facial edema, or swelling of the face, is not a common symptom of early pregnancy.
It can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.
Preeclampsia can develop suddenly and progress quickly, so it's important to seek medical attention right away if facial edema occurs.
Key Points:
Facial edema is a potential sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication.
Mood swings, urinary frequency, and decreased energy are common and expected symptoms of early pregnancy that typically do not require immediate medical attention.
It's important for pregnant women to be aware of potential warning signs and to seek medical advice promptly if they experience any concerning symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
It is accurate that scheduling the NST when the baby is usually active is beneficial. This is because fetal movement is expected to cause accelerations in the fetal heart rate, which is a positive sign of fetal well-being.
By scheduling the test during a time of typical fetal activity, the chances of obtaining a reactive NST (a normal result) are increased.
Therefore, this statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Rationale for Choice B:
Lying on the back during the NST is not recommended.
This position can cause the weight of the uterus to compress the major blood vessels (the inferior vena cava and aorta), potentially reducing blood flow to the placenta and fetus.
Reduced blood flow can, in turn, lead to a decrease in fetal heart rate and movement.
To avoid this, the recommended position for NST is a semi-Fowler's position, which involves being partially reclined with the head and upper body elevated.
This position helps to promote uterine perfusion and prevent supine hypotension.
Rationale for Choice C:
It is accurate that the baby's heart rate will be monitored during the NST.
This is the primary purpose of the test: to assess the fetal heart rate response to fetal movement. Therefore, this statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Rationale for Choice D:
It is accurate that the client will be able to go to the bathroom during the NST if necessary. The test is noninvasive and does not require strict immobility.
The client can move around and use the bathroom as needed, as long as the fetal heart rate monitor is not disconnected.
Therefore, this statement does not indicate a need for further teaching.
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