A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age.".
"We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like.".
"This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders.".
"Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The incompetent cervix is not related to the client's current situation. An incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that may result in premature dilation during pregnancy, leading to potential pregnancy loss or preterm birth. It is not relevant to the client's current stage of labour and cervical dilation.
Choice B rationale:
Postpartum haemorrhage is the correct condition to be concerned about in this situation. The client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated, which indicates she is in active labour. These signs of progress indicate that she is at risk for excessive bleeding after delivery, which is known as postpartum haemorrhage.
Choice C rationale:
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. This condition is not related to the client's current presentation, as she is already in active labour.
Choice D rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe and persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, usually during the first trimester. This condition is not relevant to the client's current situation, which involves active labour and cervical dilation.
Correct Answer is D,C,B,A
Explanation
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