A nurse is performing an assessment for a newborn and notes breast tissue that has a flat areola with no bud. The nurse should identify that this finding indicates which of the following conditions?
Preterm gestational age.
Decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy.
Congenital anomaly.
Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Flat areola without breast bud indicates immature breast tissue development, a marker of preterm gestational age due to incomplete fetal maturation of secondary sexual characteristics.
Choice B rationale: Maternal hormones influence neonatal breast tissue temporarily, but absence of bud reflects developmental immaturity rather than decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale: Congenital anomalies involve structural malformations, not absence of breast bud, which is a normal developmental stage in preterm infants rather than a pathological anomaly.
Choice D rationale: Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics refer to atypical genital or pubertal development, not neonatal breast tissue maturity, making this unrelated to the flat areola finding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Provide the client with a cool sitz bath.
Choice A rationale:
A cool sitz bath can help reduce swelling and provide pain relief for a client with a fourth-degree laceration of the perineum. Cooling the area can also help minimize inflammation and promote healing.
Choice B rationale:
Methylergonovine is typically used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. It is not indicated for the management of perineal lacerations.
Choice C rationale:
Applying a moist, warm compress to the perineum is not recommended immediately postpartum for a fourth-degree laceration, as it can increase swelling and discomfort. Cool treatments are preferred initially.
Choice D rationale:
Applying povidone-iodine to the perineum is not a standard practice for managing perineal lacerations. It can cause irritation and is not necessary for wound care in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.
Choice A rationale:
Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.
Choice B rationale:
Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.
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