A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is experiencing epigastric pain and headache.
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing painful urination.
A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is experiencing cramping and spotting.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.
Here's the rationale for each choice:
Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.
Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.
Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.
Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is elicited by making a loud noise above the newborn, causing them to extend their arms and legs and then bringing them back to the body in a hugging motion. This reflex is a normal developmental response in term newborns.
Choice B rationale:
Touching the newborn's cheek with a finger elicits the rooting reflex, where the newborn turns their head toward the stimulus, searching for a nipple or object to suck. It is a different reflex and not the Moro reflex.
Choice C rationale:
Tapping the newborn's forehead with a finger does not elicit any specific reflex. This action is not related to the Moro reflex.
Choice D rationale:
Turning the newborn's head to one side elicits the asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR), not the Moro reflex. In ATNR, when the head is turned to one side, the arm on that side extends while the opposite arm flexes.
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