A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is experiencing epigastric pain and headache.

A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and is experiencing nausea and vomiting.

A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing painful urination.

A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is experiencing cramping and spotting.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale:

Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.

Choice C rationale:

Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.

Choice D rationale:

Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.

Choice B rationale:

History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.

Choice C rationale:

Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice D rationale:

History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice E rationale:

Vacuum-assisted delivery places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Vacuum assisted delivery involves using a vacuum device to assist in the baby's delivery, and it can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding risk in the mother.

A. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline. B. Three uterine contractions within a 20-min period. C. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period. D. Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.

Here's the rationale for each choice:

Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.

Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.

Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.

Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.

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A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

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