A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client following a motor-vehicle crash. The client’s Glasgow coma scale rating is 15.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
The client withdraws from pain.
The client is unable to obey commands.
The client opens eyes to sound.
The client is oriented times three.
The Correct Answer is D
This means that the client knows who they are, where they are, and what time it is. This indicates a high level of consciousness and a normal Glasgow coma scale (GCS) rating of 15.
Choice A is wrong because the client withdraws from pain.
This means that the client reacts to a painful stimulus by pulling away from it. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 4 for motor response.
Choice B is wrong because the client is unable to obey commands.
This means that the client does not follow simple instructions such as moving a limb or opening their eyes. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 1 or 2 for motor response.
Choice C is wrong because the client opens eyes to sound.
This means that the client does not open their eyes spontaneously, but only when they hear a loud noise. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 3 for eye opening.
The Glasgow coma scale is a clinical tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person after a brain injury.
It consists of three tests: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
Each test has a score range from 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating higher levels of consciousness. The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating higher risk of death.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is part of the medication reconciliation process, which is done to avoid medication errors such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors, or drug interactions. It should be done at every transition of care in which new medications are ordered or existing orders are rewritten.
Choice B is wrong because the nurse should not encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home. The nurse should provide the client with an updated and accurate list of medications before discharge and instruct the client to keep it with him at all times.
Choice C is wrong because the nurse should not include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop. The nurse should include any known allergies or adverse reactions the client has experienced in the past, but not potential adverse effects that have not occurred.
Choice D is wrong because the nurse should not exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports. The nurse should include all prescription medications, herbals, vitamins, nutritional supplements, over-the-counter drugs, vaccines, diagnostic and contrast agents, radioactive medications, parenteral nutrition, blood derivatives, and intravenous solutions in the medication reconciliation process.
Some of these products may interact with prescribed medications or affect laboratory results.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.

Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure, and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because a pulse rate of 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output of 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
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