A nurse in the clinic is assessing a postpartum client. The client states that they sleep all the time and are hearing voices telling them to harm their child. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following?
Bipolar disorder
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Psychotic depression
Postpartum depression
The Correct Answer is D
A. Bipolar disorder: Bipolar disorder involves episodes of mania and depression but does not typically present with postpartum psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations.
B. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder: This is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) that affects mood, but it is not associated with postpartum psychosis or auditory hallucinations.
C. Psychotic depression: Psychotic depression can include hallucinations, but in a postpartum context, postpartum psychosis is the more likely diagnosis.
D. Postpartum depression: Severe postpartum depression can lead to postpartum psychosis, which includes symptoms like hallucinations and delusions. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 30-year-old rich man: While anyone can develop depression, wealth and younger age generally lower the risk.
B. A 70-year-old married man in a two-income household: Having a supportive spouse and financial stability generally lower depression risk in older adults.
C. A 24-year-old married woman in a single-income home: While financial stress may be a risk factor, younger married individuals tend to have more social support, reducing their overall risk.
D. A 64-year-old single woman: Older women, especially those who are single, widowed, or lacking social support, have an increased risk for depression. The risk is compounded by potential health issues and isolation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client has a pleasant affect: "Affect" refers to outward emotional expression, whereas "mood" is the client's internal emotional state.
B. The client appears happy with an elevated mood: The nurse should document objective data rather than interpreting the client’s emotions.
C. The client self-isolated today: While self-isolation may indicate mood disturbances, it does not directly document the client’s reported mood.
D. The client rates their mood 4 out of 10: This entry reflects the client’s subjective report using a measurable scale, making it the most accurate documentation.
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