A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who had a seizure and became unresponsive after stating they had a sudden, severe headache. The client's vital signs are as follows: blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg, pulse of 82/min, respirations of 24/min, and a temperature of 38.2° C (100.8° F). Which of the following neurological disorders should the nurse suspect?
Embolic stroke
Thrombotic stroke
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Hemorrhagic stroke
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A. An embolic stroke is caused by an embolus, often a blood clot, that travels to the brain from another part of the body. It does not typically present with a sudden, severe headache.
Choice B. A thrombotic stroke occurs when a blood clot forms inside one of the brain's arteries. While it can cause a headache, it is not usually characterized by a sudden, severe headache.
Choice C. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often called a mini-stroke and symptoms are temporary. A sudden, severe headache is more indicative of a hemorrhagic stroke.
Choice D. A hemorrhagic stroke, which involves bleeding within the brain, is most likely to cause a sudden, severe headache, and can lead to seizures and changes in consciousness.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
This set of values indicates metabolic acidosis, which is common in chronic kidney disease due to the accumulation of acids in the body as the kidneys fail to eliminate them effectively³.
Choice B reason:
A pH of 7.50 is considered alkalotic, and while HCO3- and PaCO2 are within normal ranges, this set of values does not typically represent chronic kidney disease.
Choice C reason:
A pH of 7.55 is also alkalotic, and an HCO3- of 30 mEq/L indicates metabolic alkalosis, which is not characteristic of chronic kidney disease.
Choice D reason:
While a pH of 7.30 is on the lower end of the normal range, an HCO3- of 26 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg indicates respiratory acidosis, not typically seen in chronic kidney disease without concurrent respiratory issues.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy primarily to lower blood ammonia levels. It works by converting ammonia in the intestines into ammonium, which is then excreted³. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels would indicate the effectiveness of the medication.
Choice B reason:While lactulose can relieve constipation due to its laxative effect, relief of constipation is not the primary indicator of its effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy³.
Choice C reason:Decreased liver enzymes are not a direct measure of lactulose's effectiveness in hepatic encephalopathy. Liver enzymes are indicators of liver function, not ammonia levels³.
Choice D reason:Relief of abdominal pain is not a specific indicator of lactulose's effectiveness in hepatic encephalopathy. The medication's primary role is to reduce ammonia levels, not to alleviate pain³.
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