A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who took three nitroglycerin tablets sublingually for chest pain. The client reports relief from the chest pain but now is experiencing a headache. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"A headache is an expected side effect of the medication."
"A headache is an indication of an allergy to the medication."
"A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain."
"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication."
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason : Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, which can cause blood vessels to expand, leading to headaches. Patients should be informed that this is a common reaction and can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers if necessary¹²³⁴.
Choice B reason : A headache is not typically an indication of an allergy to nitroglycerin. Allergic reactions would more likely present with symptoms such as rash, itching, or difficulty breathing.
Choice C reason : While anxiety can cause headaches, in this context, the headache is more likely a direct side effect of the nitroglycerin, especially since it occurred after taking the medication and the chest pain was relieved.
Choice D reason : Tolerance to medication refers to a reduced response to a drug over time, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect. A headache after taking nitroglycerin does not indicate tolerance; it is a known side effect of the drug.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Benzodiazepines are not typically used for the long-term treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder due to the risk of dependence and because other medications, such as SSRIs, are more effective for long-term management⁵.
Choice B reason : Benzodiazepines are effective for the short-term management of panic attacks due to their rapid onset of action, which can quickly alleviate acute symptoms of anxiety and panic⁵⁹.
Choice C reason : Long-term treatment of agoraphobia generally involves psychotherapy and SSRIs or SNRIs rather than benzodiazepines, which can lead to dependence and are not recommended for long-term use⁵.
Choice D reason : Benzodiazepines are not the first-line treatment for depression and are generally not used for this purpose. Antidepressants and psychotherapy are the standard treatments for depression⁵.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason : The plantar reflex, also known as the Babinski sign, is elicited by stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot. A positive response is indicated by dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of the other toes. This reflex is normal in infants but may indicate central nervous system damage in adults¹. However, it is not specifically associated with meningeal irritation.
Choice B reason : Kernig's sign is a clinical sign wherein the patient experiences severe stiffness of the hamstrings causing an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees. This sign can indicate meningeal irritation but is not as early a sign as Brudzinski's sign².
Choice C reason : Brudzinski's sign is one of the most indicative signs of meningeal irritation. When the neck is flexed, there is involuntary flexion of the hips and knees. This reflex is an early sign of meningeal irritation and is considered a critical manifestation in assessing meningitis following head trauma².
Choice D reason : Sunsetting eyes, characterized by the downward deviation of the eyes, is associated with increased intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like hydrocephalus. While it may be seen in the context of brain injury, it is not a specific sign of meningeal irritation³.
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