A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Hacking cough

Abdominal distension

Dependent edema

Jugular venous distention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Hacking cough: This is the correct answer. Left-sided heart failure can lead to pulmonary congestion, resulting in a cough that is often described as "hacking" or "persistent." This cough may be worse at night when the client is lying down.

B. Abdominal distension: Abdominal distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, as fluid accumulates in the abdomen (ascites). In left-sided heart failure, fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to pulmonary symptoms.

C. Dependent edema: Dependent edema is also more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, fluid tends to accumulate in the lungs, causing pulmonary congestion and related symptoms.

D. Jugular venous distention: Jugular venous distention is often seen in right-sided heart failure due to impaired blood flow from the right atrium into the right ventricle. This finding is less likely to be prominent in left-sided heart failure.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Schilling test: This is the correct answer. The Schilling test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia, which is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. The test measures the absorption of vitamin B12 in the gastrointestinal tract.

B. Haptoglobin: Haptoglobin is a test used to assess hemolysis and is not specific for pernicious anemia.

C. Sweat test: The sweat test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis and is not relevant to the diagnosis of pernicious anemia.

D. Antinuclear antibodies: Antinuclear antibodies are tested to diagnose autoimmune disorders, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and are not specific to pernicious anemia.

A. Aortic regurgitation, B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral valve prolapse

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation typically presents with a diastolic murmur, not a systolic click.

B. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis presents with a diastolic murmur, often associated with an opening snap, rather than a systolic click.

C. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis typically presents with a systolic ejection murmur, but not a systolic click.

D. Mitral valve prolapse: This is the correct answer. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is characterized by the displacement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, often producing a systolic click. Symptoms associated with MVP can include atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who the provider suspects might have pernicious anemia. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following diagnostic tests?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports occasional atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance. On auscultation, the nurse notes a systolic click. The nurse should recognize this finding as a manifestation of which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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