A nurse in the respiratory unit is caring for client who has a past medical history of heart failure and is currently admitted for asthma exacerbation. When reviewing the provider's orders further clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

Prednisone

Metropolol

Labetolol

Albuterol

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Prednisone:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid commonly used to reduce inflammation in conditions such as asthma. It is appropriate in this case for managing the asthma exacerbation, as steroids help to decrease airway inflammation and improve breathing. There is no immediate concern about prednisone in this client with both asthma and a history of heart failure.

B) Metoprolol:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, typically used for managing heart failure, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, beta-blockers are generally avoided in asthma patients because they can exacerbate bronchospasm. In patients with asthma, beta-blockers can block beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to constriction of the airways and worsening respiratory symptoms.

C) Labetolol:
Labetolol is a beta-blocker with both alpha- and beta-blocking effects, which can help lower blood pressure and manage heart failure. While labetalol can also block beta-2 receptors, it has a relatively lower risk of causing bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta-blockers like metoprolol. However, it still poses some risk to patients with asthma. Given the patient's history of asthma, labetolol may still require caution, but it is generally considered safer than other beta-blockers.

D) Albuterol:
Albuterol is a bronchodilator used to relieve acute asthma symptoms and is commonly prescribed for asthma exacerbations. It works by stimulating beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles and improved airflow. In this case, albuterol is an appropriate medication for managing asthma exacerbation and should be used to relieve symptoms of shortness of breath and wheezing.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Go to the emergency department:
An immediate trip to the emergency department is generally not required for a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of 82%. The PEFR of 82% indicates that the client’s airflow is reduced, but it is not necessarily an emergency. PEFR readings are typically classified into zones: green (80-100% of personal best), yellow (50-79% of personal best), and red (below 50% of personal best). A reading of 82% is in the yellow zone, which suggests that the client is experiencing some degree of airway obstruction or worsening asthma symptoms

B) Continue to use salmeterol and fluticasone as prescribed:
While salmeterol (a long-acting beta agonist) and fluticasone (a corticosteroid) are important for long-term asthma control, continuing their use without additional intervention is not the most appropriate action when the PEFR is 82%. A PEFR of 82% indicates that the client’s asthma is not well controlled at the moment, and the nurse should recommend additional short-acting relief to help open the airways (e.g., a rescue inhaler like albuterol.

C) Administer an additional rescue dose of Albuterol:
The correct immediate action is to administer a rescue dose of albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps open the airways quickly during an asthma exacerbation. A PEFR of 82% falls in the yellow zone, suggesting some obstruction but not an emergency situation. In this case, administering an additional rescue dose of albuterol can help improve airflow and bring the PEFR closer to normal.

D) Call the physician:
While it may be necessary to call the physician if the client’s asthma symptoms do not improve after using a rescue inhaler or if there is a significant decline in symptoms, the first immediate action should be to use a rescue medication like albuterol. Calling the physician may be appropriate after assessing the response to the rescue medication, but it is not the first step in managing a PEFR of 82%.

A. It is pain that can be relieved with rest B. It is normal pain that will go away on its own on C. It is pain that is not relieved by taking nitroglycerin D. It is pain that requires a cardiac catheterization

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) It is pain that can be relieved with rest:
Stable angina is typically predictable and occurs during physical exertion or emotional stress when the heart’s oxygen demand exceeds its supply. The pain associated with stable angina usually resolves with rest or after the cessation of the activity that triggered it. Additionally, nitroglycerin can help alleviate the discomfort by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart muscle.

B) It is normal pain that will go away on its own:
Although stable angina pain may resolve on its own when the precipitating factor (e.g., exercise or stress) is removed, it is not considered "normal" pain. The pain is a symptom of underlying coronary artery disease (CAD), indicating that the heart muscle is not getting enough oxygen. It’s important for the client to manage angina carefully, as it may progress to more serious forms, such as unstable angina or myocardial infarction (heart attack), if not addressed appropriately.

C) It is pain that is not relieved by taking nitroglycerin:
Nitroglycerin is commonly effective in relieving stable angina by relaxing the coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart. If a client’s angina is not relieved by nitroglycerin, it may indicate that the angina is no longer stable (i.e., it has become unstable angina) or that a more serious cardiovascular event is occurring, such as a heart attack.

D) It is pain that requires a cardiac catheterization:
Cardiac catheterization is a diagnostic and interventional procedure typically used when a patient has unstable angina or a history of myocardial infarction or when other treatments have failed. However, stable angina usually does not require immediate catheterization unless the pain is refractory or there is evidence of significant coronary artery blockage. The most common management for stable angina is lifestyle modifications, medications (e.g., nitroglycerin, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers), and addressing risk factors for coronary artery disease.

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A nurse in the respiratory unit is caring for client who has a past medical history of heart failure and is currently admitted for asthma exacerbation. When reviewing the provider's orders further clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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