A nurse is admitting a client to a medical-surgical unit.
When performing medication reconciliation for the client, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Compare new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports
B. Encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home
Include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop
Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. The nurse should compare new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports. This is part of the medication reconciliation process, which is done to avoid medication errors such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors, or drug interactions. It should be done at every transition of care in which new medications are ordered or existing orders are rewritten.
Choice B is wrong because the nurse should not encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home. The nurse should provide the client with an updated and accurate list of medications before discharge and instruct the client to keep it with him at all times.
Choice C is wrong because the nurse should not include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop. The nurse should include any known allergies or adverse reactions the client has experienced in the past, but not potential adverse effects that have not occurred.
Choice D is wrong because the nurse should not exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports. The nurse should include all prescription medications, herbals, vitamins, nutritional supplements, over-the-counter drugs, vaccines, diagnostic and contrast agents, radioactive medications, parenteral nutrition, blood derivatives, and intravenous solutions in the medication reconciliation process.
Some of these products may interact with prescribed medications or affect laboratory results.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
A:Provide frequent rest periods for the client. This is correct because the client has anaemia (low haemoglobin and hematocrit), which can cause weakness and fatigue. Rest periods can help conserve energy and prevent complications.
B:Instruct the client to avoid blowing their nose forcefully. This is correct because the client has thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which can increase the risk of bleeding. Blowing the nose forcefully can cause nasal bleeding or rupture of blood vessels.
C: Assess the client’s level of orientation. This is correct because the client has hepatic encephalopathy (brain dysfunction due to liver failure), which can cause confusion, mood changes, and disorientation. Assessing the client’s level of orientation can help monitor the severity of hepatic encephalopathy and guide appropriate interventions.
D:Place the client on a low-carbohydrate diet. This is incorrect because a low-carbohydrate diet can worsen hepatic encephalopathy by increasing ammonia production in the gut. The client should be on a high-protein, high-calorie diet to provide adequate nutrition and prevent muscle wasting.
E: Restrict the client’s sodium intake. This is correct because the client has ascites (fluid accumulation in the abdomen) due to portal hypertension (high blood pressure in the portal vein). Restricting sodium intake can help reduce fluid retention and prevent further complications.
F Advise the client to avoid the use of soap and alcohol-based lotions. This is correct because the client has pruritus (itching) due to high bilirubin levels in the blood. Soap and alcohol-based lotions can dry out the skin and worsen pruritus. The client should use mild cleansers and moisturizers to soothe the skin.
G: Place the client under contact isolation. This is incorrect because there is no indication that the client has an infectious disease that requires contact isolation. Contact isolation is used for clients who have diseases that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment, such as Clostridioides difficile infection or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection.
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