A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?
Droplet
Protective
Contact
Airborne
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Droplet precautions are not appropriate for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Droplet precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningitis. Droplet precautions require the use of a surgical mask, eye protection, and gloves when in close contact with the client.
Choice B reason: Protective precautions are not applicable for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Protective precautions are used to protect immunocompromised clients from exposure to pathogens, such as those undergoing chemotherapy, organ transplantation, or stem cell transplantation. Protective precautions require the use of a HEPA filter, a positive pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.
Choice C reason: Contact precautions are not sufficient for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Contact precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by direct or indirect contact with the client or the client's environment, such as Clostridioides difficile, MRSA, or VRE. Contact precautions require the use of gloves and gowns when entering the room and the dedicated use of noncritical patientcare equipment.
Choice D reason: Airborne precautions are the correct type of isolation precautions for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Airborne precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by small respiratory droplets that can remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. Airborne precautions require the use of a respirator, such as an N95 mask, a negative pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering an inhaled glucocorticoid is not the priority intervention for a child with status asthmaticus. Inhaled glucocorticoids are anti-inflammatory drugs that reduce airway inflammation and prevent asthma attacks, but they do not provide immediate relief of bronchoconstriction.
Choice B reason: Administering a short acting beta agonist (SABA) is the priority intervention for a child with status asthmaticus. SABAs are bronchodilators that relax the smooth muscles of the airways and improve airflow within minutes. They are the first line treatment for acute asthma symptoms and exacerbations.
Choice C reason: Determining the cause of the acute exacerbation is not the priority intervention for a child with status asthmaticus. While it is important to identify and avoid potential triggers of asthma, such as allergens, infections, or stress, this is not an urgent action during a severe asthma attack.
Choice D reason: Obtaining a peak flow reading is not the priority intervention for a child with status asthmaticus. Peak flow is a measure of how quickly the child can blow air out of the lungs, and it can indicate the degree of airway obstruction. However, peak flow measurement is not reliable or feasible during a severe asthma attack, and it should not delay the administration of bronchodilators.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: The client is unable to make vocal sounds. This conclusion is not based on the GCS score of 5 for best verbal response, which indicates that the client is oriented and converses normally. The client may have other reasons for being unable to make vocal sounds, such as intubation or injury to the vocal cords.
Choice B reason: The client opens his eyes when spoken to. This conclusion is based on the GCS score of 3 for eye opening, which indicates that the client responds to verbal stimuli. This is the highest level of eye opening response on the GCS.
Choice C reason: The client is unconscious. This conclusion is not based on the GCS score of 13 (3+5+5), which indicates that the client has a mild level of impaired consciousness. The client is not unconscious, but may have reduced awareness or attention.
Choice D reason: The client can follow simple motor commands. This conclusion is not based on the GCS score of 5 for best motor response, which indicates that the client localizes pain. This means that the client moves their limbs away from a painful stimulus, but does not necessarily follow commands.
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