A nurse is admitting a client who is in active labor and has had two prior cesarean births. The nurse should identify that the client is at an increased risk for which of the following complications?

Failure to progress

Abruptio placentae

Precipitous labor

Uterine rupture

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Uterine rupture. When a client has had two prior cesarean births, she is at an increased risk for uterine rupture. Uterine rupture is a serious complication that can occur during labor, where there is a tear in the wall of the uterus. It can lead to significant blood loss for the mother and oxygen deprivation for the fetus. Other risk factors for uterine rupture include a previous uterine surgery, the use of labor-inducing drugs, and multiple gestations.

Failure to progress (choice A) refers to a labor that is not progressing as it should, and can be caused by a variety of factors, including fetal malposition or inadequate contractions. Abruptio placentae (choice B) refers to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause fetal distress and maternal hemorrhage. Precipitous labor (choice C) refers to a labor that progresses extremely quickly, with contractions lasting less than 3 hours from the onset of active labor. While precipitous labor can be associated with increased risk for perineal lacerations and postpartum hemorrhage, it is not typically associated with prior cesarean births.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's. Maternal hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia. A bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's is an appropriate intervention for maternal hypotension due to the increased volume and pressure it provides, which can help to raise the client's blood pressure. The knee-chest position is not an appropriate intervention for maternal hypotension as it can cause a decrease in venous return to the heart. Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to stop premature labor, and it is not indicated for maternal hypotension. Oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not an appropriate intervention for maternal hypotension as it does not address the underlying cause of the hypotension.

A. "The discharge is common during the first 24 to 72 hours following a circumcision." B. "I will need to obtain a sample of the discharge for laboratory testing." C. "Apply povidone-iodine solution twice daily to the circumcision site." D. "Wipe the discharge away gently with a washcloth and warm water for the next 48 hours."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse should inform the client that it is common for yellow discharge to form at the circumcision site during the first 24 to 72 hours following the procedure. This is due to the accumulation of exudate, which is a normal part of the healing process. The nurse does not need to obtain a sample of the discharge for laboratory testing. The povidone-iodine solution should not be applied to the circumcision site, as it can be caustic and delay healing. Wiping the discharge away gently with a washcloth and warm water may irritate the wound and cause additional trauma.

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A nurse is admitting a client who is in active labor and has had two prior cesarean births. The nurse should identify that the client is at an increased risk for which of the following complications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who reports that her baby has yellow discharge forming at the circumcision site. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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