A nurse is admitting a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and expects to administer which of the following medications to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Nicardipine

Dopamine

Mannitol

Phenytoin .

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale
Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure. While it can be used in the management of subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not primarily used to decrease intracranial pressure.
Choice B rationale

Dopamine is a type of medication used to treat certain conditions such as low blood pressure, heart failure, and Parkinson’s disease. It is not typically used to decrease intracranial pressure in the context of a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is a type of medication that is used to decrease intracranial pressure. It works by drawing fluid out of the brain to help reduce swelling.
Choice D rationale
Phenytoin is a medication used to control seizures. While it can be used in the management of subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not primarily used to decrease intracranial pressure. Migraine Explore

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Rebleeding of the injury is a significant factor related to a high mortality rate for a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). SAH is a devastating event with substantial mortality and high morbidity among survivors. The most common primary causes of death or neurological devastation leading to withdrawal of support are direct effects of the primary hemorrhage (55%) and aneurysm rebleeding (17%)2. Therefore, rebleeding of the injury is a critical concern in the management of SAH.
Choice B rationale
Decreased cerebrospinal fluid is not directly linked to a high mortality rate in SAH. While changes in cerebrospinal fluid dynamics can occur after SAH, it’s not typically a primary factor contributing to mortality.
Choice C rationale
The use of nimodipine is actually part of the treatment protocol for SAH. Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that is used to prevent cerebral vasospasm, a complication of SAH. It does not contribute to a higher mortality rate.
Choice D rationale
Poor functional ability could be a result of SAH due to neurological damage, but it is not a direct cause of high mortality. The severity of the initial hemorrhage and subsequent

complications like rebleeding or medical complications are more directly tied to mortality rates.

A. “The nerves just go to sleep when I lie down because no message gets from my brain to the spinal cord.”. B. “The nerve damage may occur for unknown reasons in any individual.”. C. “The older I get, the less blood flows to my feet.”. D. “The elevated blood sugar from my diabetes can cause underlying nerve damage.”.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
This statement is incorrect. Nerves do not “go to sleep.”. Peripheral neuropathy in diabetes is caused by damage to the nerves as a result of high blood sugar levels over time.
Choice B rationale
This statement is incorrect. While nerve damage can occur due to various reasons, in the context of diabetes, it is primarily due to prolonged high blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale
This statement is incorrect. Age and blood flow to the feet are not the primary causes of peripheral neuropathy in diabetes. The primary cause is prolonged high blood sugar levels.
Choice D rationale
This statement is correct. Prolonged high blood sugar levels in diabetes can cause damage to the peripheral nerves, leading to peripheral neuropathy.

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A nurse is admitting a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and expects to administer which of the following medications to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assisting with planning care for a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Which of the following relates to a high mortality rate for a client who has an SAH?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus reports experiencing numbness and tingling in their feet that disrupts their sleep.The nurse explains this as a nerve disorder known as peripheral neuropathy. Which statement by the client indicates they understand the cause of this condition?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is gathering neurological data on a patient with a neurological injury and observes signs indicative of Cushing’s Triad. The nurse understands that Cushing’s Triad is a nervous system response that could prevent which of the following conditions?

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A nurse in the emergency department is evaluating a client who was brought in by a neighbor after suddenly falling while walking. What assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury and is being mechanically ventilated. Which of the following can cause unfavorable outcomes for this client?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following groups should the nurse understand has a higher risk of sustaining a TBI?

A nurse is responsible for six patients. Which of the following patients are at risk for developing peripheral neuropathy (PN)? (Select all that apply.)