A nurse is admitting a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and expects to administer which of the following medications to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Nicardipine

Dopamine

Mannitol

Phenytoin .

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale
Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure. While it can be used in the management of subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not primarily used to decrease intracranial pressure.
Choice B rationale

Dopamine is a type of medication used to treat certain conditions such as low blood pressure, heart failure, and Parkinson’s disease. It is not typically used to decrease intracranial pressure in the context of a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is a type of medication that is used to decrease intracranial pressure. It works by drawing fluid out of the brain to help reduce swelling.
Choice D rationale
Phenytoin is a medication used to control seizures. While it can be used in the management of subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is not primarily used to decrease intracranial pressure. Migraine Explore

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Regulation of the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled can affect cerebral blood flow, but it does not directly maintain cerebral perfusion pressure constant.
Choice B rationale
Catecholamines circulating throughout the body can affect blood pressure and heart rate, but they do not directly maintain cerebral perfusion pressure constant.

Choice C rationale
How much blood is pumped from the heart, also known as cardiac output, can affect cerebral perfusion pressure. However, it does not directly maintain cerebral perfusion pressure constant.
Choice D rationale
Regulation of constriction and dilation of blood vessels in the brain, also known as cerebral autoregulation, is a key mechanism that maintains cerebral perfusion pressure constant. When pressure autoregulation is impaired, cerebral blood flow becomes dependent on cerebral perfusion pressure.

A. “The nerves just go to sleep when I lie down because no message gets from my brain to the spinal cord.”. B. “The nerve damage may occur for unknown reasons in any individual.”. C. “The older I get, the less blood flows to my feet.”. D. “The elevated blood sugar from my diabetes can cause underlying nerve damage.”.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
This statement is incorrect. Nerves do not “go to sleep.”. Peripheral neuropathy in diabetes is caused by damage to the nerves as a result of high blood sugar levels over time.
Choice B rationale
This statement is incorrect. While nerve damage can occur due to various reasons, in the context of diabetes, it is primarily due to prolonged high blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale
This statement is incorrect. Age and blood flow to the feet are not the primary causes of peripheral neuropathy in diabetes. The primary cause is prolonged high blood sugar levels.
Choice D rationale
This statement is correct. Prolonged high blood sugar levels in diabetes can cause damage to the peripheral nerves, leading to peripheral neuropathy.

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A nurse is admitting a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and expects to administer which of the following medications to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has sustained a neurologic injury with increased intracranial pressure and decreased cerebral perfusion. Which of the following will maintain cerebral perfusion pressure constant?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus reports experiencing numbness and tingling in their feet that disrupts their sleep.The nurse explains this as a nerve disorder known as peripheral neuropathy. Which statement by the client indicates they understand the cause of this condition?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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