A nurse is admitting an adolescent who has rubella. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer aspirin to the client.
Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant.
Initiate airborne precautions.
Monitor for the development of Koplik spots.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition where the aorta is narrow, usually in the area where the ductus arteriosus inserts. This causes a decrease in blood flow to the lower body, resulting in weak or absent pulses in the femoral arteries.
The other choices are incorrect for the following reasons:
Choice A is not a typical sign of coarctation of the aorta.
Nosebleeds can be caused by many factors, such as dry air, allergies, trauma, or bleeding disorders.
Choice B is also not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta. In fact, patients with this condition may have high blood pressure in the upper extremities due to the increased resistance of the narrowed aorta.
Choice D is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
Increased intracranial pressure can be caused by various conditions that affect the brain, such as head injury, stroke, infection, or tumor.
Normal ranges for blood pressure and pulse vary depending on age, sex, and health status. However, some general guidelines are:
- Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mmHg for adults; less than 95/65 mmHg for infants.
- Pulse: 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults; 100 to 160 beats per minute for infants.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because shuffling gait is a common manifestation of pseudo-parkinsonism, which is a condition that mimics the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease due to the use of certain medications that block dopamine receptors, such as haloperidol. Pseudoparkinsonism can cause slowed movements, muscle stiffness, tremor, and postural instability.
Choice A. Nonreactive pupils are wrong because this is not a typical feature of pseudoparkinsonism or Parkinson’s disease.
Nonreactive pupils can be caused by other conditions, such as brain injury, drugs, or eye diseases.
Choice B. Serpentine limb movement is wrong because this is a characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, another drug-induced movement disorder that can result from the long-term use of dopamine receptor-blocking agents. Tardive dyskinesia causes involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and limbs that are often writhing or twisting.
Choice C. Smacking lips is wrong because this is also a sign of tardive dyskinesia, not pseudo-parkinsonism. Smacking lips is one of the orofacial movements that can occur in tardive dyskinesia due to abnormal muscle contractions.
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