A nurse is analyzing a client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip and identifies the following information:
Heart rate: 92/min
Rhythm: Irregular
P wave: Unable to identify
PR interval: Unable to measure
QRS duration: O. 1 0 seconds
Based upon this information, the nurse should interpret the client's rhythm as indicating which of the following?
Atrial fibrillation
Sinus bradycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia
First-degree heart block
The Correct Answer is A
A. Atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm, absence of identifiable P waves, and irregular ventricular response. The heart rate in atrial fibrillation can be variable, and the absence of identifiable P waves indicates disorganized atrial electrical activity.
B. Sinus bradycardia: Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute (bpm) and normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. In sinus bradycardia, the PR interval and QRS duration are typically within normal limits.
C. Supraventricular tachycardia: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate greater than 100 bpm. SVT typically presents with narrow QRS complexes and may or may not have discernible P waves.
D. First-degree heart block: First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds) but maintains a regular rhythm with normal QRS duration. In first-degree heart block, P waves are typically identifiable, and the rhythm is not irregular.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "The heart and the coronary arteries weaken, leading to poor perfusion and resulting in angina": This statement is inaccurate. While angina can result from poor perfusion to the heart muscle, it is not typically due to weakening of the heart and coronary arteries. Angina often occurs due to coronary artery narrowing or blockage, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery to the myocardium.
B. "Coronary arteries become more elastic causing the arteries to stretch as individuals age causing the heart not to receive enough oxygen": This statement is incorrect. Coronary arteries do not become more elastic with age; in fact, they tend to become less elastic due to the development of atherosclerosis, which leads to arterial stiffening and decreased compliance. Atherosclerosis can cause narrowing or occlusion of the coronary arteries, resulting in reduced oxygen delivery to the heart muscle.
C. "Coronary arteries decrease in diameter leading to insufficient blood, oxygen, and nutrients reaching the heart muscle. Manifestations occur due to dilation of coronary arteries with increased blood flow causing increased pressure": This statement is partially incorrect. While it accurately describes the consequences of coronary artery narrowing (decrease in diameter) leading to insufficient blood, oxygen, and nutrient delivery to the heart muscle, the second part of the statement regarding dilation of coronary arteries with increased blood flow causing increased pressure is inaccurate. Coronary artery dilation is a compensatory response to increased demand for oxygen, aiming to improve blood flow to the myocardium. However, dilation alone does not increase pressure in the coronary arteries.
D. "Coronary arteries decrease in diameter leading to insufficient blood, oxygen, and nutrients reaching the heart muscle": This statement is accurate. Coronary artery disease (CAD) involves the progressive narrowing of the coronary arteries due to atherosclerosis, which reduces blood flow to the myocardium. As the arteries narrow, there is insufficient blood, oxygen, and nutrients reaching the heart muscle, leading to manifestations such as angina, myocardial ischemia, and potentially myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Pantoprazole: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. It is primarily indicated for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcers, and other conditions related to excessive stomach acid production. It does not play a role in managing Meniere's disease, which is a disorder of the inner ear characterized by episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.
B) Warfarin: Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clot formation. It is commonly prescribed for conditions such as atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism. Meniere's disease does not typically require anticoagulant therapy, so warfarin would not be indicated for its treatment.
C) Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output. In some cases of Meniere's disease, especially those associated with excessive endolymphatic fluid buildup in the inner ear, furosemide may be prescribed to help reduce fluid volume and alleviate symptoms such as vertigo and pressure sensation in the ear.
D) Oxybutynin: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication primarily used to treat overactive bladder and urinary incontinence. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder, reducing bladder spasms and urinary urgency. While some individuals with Meniere's disease may experience associated symptoms such as frequent urination or urinary urgency, oxybutynin is not a standard treatment for Meniere's disease itself.
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