A nurse is analyzing a client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip and identifies the following information:

Heart rate: 92/min

Rhythm: Irregular

P wave: Unable to identify

PR interval: Unable to measure

QRS duration: O. 1 0 seconds
Based upon this information, the nurse should interpret the client's rhythm as indicating which of the following?

Atrial fibrillation

Sinus bradycardia

Supraventricular tachycardia

First-degree heart block

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm, absence of identifiable P waves, and irregular ventricular response. The heart rate in atrial fibrillation can be variable, and the absence of identifiable P waves indicates disorganized atrial electrical activity.

B. Sinus bradycardia: Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute (bpm) and normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. In sinus bradycardia, the PR interval and QRS duration are typically within normal limits.

C. Supraventricular tachycardia: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate greater than 100 bpm. SVT typically presents with narrow QRS complexes and may or may not have discernible P waves.

D. First-degree heart block: First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds) but maintains a regular rhythm with normal QRS duration. In first-degree heart block, P waves are typically identifiable, and the rhythm is not irregular.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Tonometer intraocular pressure reading 8 mm Hg (Option A): A low intraocular pressure reading may indicate a detached retina. In a detached retina, the vitreous humor (gel-like substance in the eye) may leak into the space behind the retina, causing a decrease in intraocular pressure. However, it's important to note that intraocular pressure alone cannot definitively diagnose a detached retina, and further diagnostic tests, such as a dilated eye examination or retinal imaging, would be needed for confirmation.

Smooth retina edges identified on slit-lamp biomicroscope examination (Option B): In the case of a detached retina, the edges of the retina may appear irregular or undulating rather than smooth. This irregularity is often observed during a dilated eye examination rather than with a slit-lamp biomicroscope.

Visual acuity of 20/20 using the Snellen eye chart (Option C): Visual acuity may be affected in a detached retina, depending on the extent and location of the detachment. However, visual acuity alone cannot confirm a detached retina, as other factors such as refractive errors or cataracts can also affect visual acuity.

Lens and cornea appear intact during ophthalmoscope exam (Option D): While a detached retina may be visualized during an ophthalmoscope examination as a gray or whitish area behind the lens, the appearance of the lens and cornea being intact does not definitively diagnose a detached retina. A thorough dilated eye examination by an ophthalmologist is necessary for accurate diagnosis.

A. Basketball, office jobs, and listening to loud music B. Swimming, working as a nurse, and painting C. Football, military service, and physical abuse D. Golfing, working in construction, and horse roping

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Basketball, office jobs, and listening to loud music: These activities are not typically associated with an increased risk of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). While some recreational and occupational activities may involve physical or environmental risks, they are not commonly linked to the repetitive head trauma seen in CTE.

B. Swimming, working as a nurse, and painting: These activities are not commonly associated with an increased risk of CTE. Swimming is generally a low-risk activity for head injuries, while working as a nurse and painting are not typically associated with repetitive head trauma.

C. Football, military service, and physical abuse: This is the correct answer. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is strongly associated with repetitive head trauma, particularly in contact sports like football, as well as in military service where blast injuries and combat-related head trauma are common. Physical abuse, especially in contact sports, can also increase the risk of CTE due to repetitive blows to the head.

D. Golfing, working in construction, and horse roping: While some occupational and recreational activities may involve a risk of head injury, they are not commonly associated with the repetitive head trauma seen in CTE. Golfing, construction work, and horse roping typically do not involve the level of repetitive head impacts seen in activities like football or military service.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is performing preoperative assessments on a client who has a suspected detached retina. Which of the following should the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is preparing a poster about chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) for a local community health fair. Which of the following activities should the nurse include on the poster as increasing the risk for CTE?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client who has macular degeneration about how to use an Amsler grid. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is providing CPR to a client. Which of the following aspects of CPR are different in the community versus in the hospital? (Select All that Apply.)

A nurse is assessing a client who reports hearing loss. Which of the following statements indicates that the hearing loss is affecting the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs)?

A nurse is reviewing home medications with a client scheduled for a cataract extraction procedure. Which of the following medications should the nurse question administering?

A nurse is providing teaching to newly licensed nurses about cardiac tamponade. Which of the following should the nurse include when teaching about Phase Il cardiac tamponade?

The nurse is providing care to a client who has survived cardiac arrest Which of the following manifestations should alert the nurse to the development of PCAS?

A nurse and a newly licensed nurse are providing care for a client who has distributive shock. How should the nurse explain the pathophysiology of distributive shock to the newly licensed nurse?

A nurse is admitting a client to the hospital unit. Which one of the following elements of the client's history and physical assessment increases the risk for the development of delirium?