A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus type 2 and presents for a follow-up visit. Which of the following lab values is most indicative of inadequate control of their diabetes since their last primary care visit and requires further teaching?

HbA1c level of 7.5% (nl. 4.4-6.4%)

2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level of 122 mg/dL (nl. <120 mg/dL)

Random blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL (nl. <200 mg/dL)

Fasting blood glucose level of 48 mg/dL (nl. 60-110 mg/dL)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. An HbA1c level of 7.5% indicates suboptimal long-term glucose control. The target for many diabetic patients is usually below 7%, but it may not require immediate action compared to more acute indicators.
B. A 2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level of 122 mg/dL is slightly above the normal range but not significantly high. This result alone is not as indicative of inadequate control as other values.
C. A random blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates poor glucose control. This value is much higher than the normal range and suggests a need for further teaching and adjustment of diabetes management.
D. A fasting blood glucose level of 48 mg/dL is low and could indicate hypoglycemia rather than inadequate control. This level requires immediate attention but does not reflect poor long-term diabetes management.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Checking the IV site for bleeding is important but should be done more frequently in a client with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), as bleeding can occur unexpectedly.
B. Administering stool softeners is a key intervention for clients with thrombocytopenia, as it helps to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could cause rectal bleeding due to fragile blood vessels.
C. Checking for proteinuria is not directly related to thrombocytopenia or the risk of bleeding. It is more commonly associated with kidney function monitoring.
D. Obtaining body temperature readings is important for infection monitoring, but it does not directly address the risk associated with a low platelet count, which primarily concerns bleeding.

A. WBC count in CSF B. Muscle weakness C. Altered level of consciousness D. Kernig sign result E. Body temperature at 2105

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"A,B"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A,B"}}

Explanation

A high white blood cell (WBC) count in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is more commonly associated with bacterial meningitis, characterized by a high neutrophil count, low glucose, and high protein levels. it is also seen in encephalitis and reflects the individual cell lines that are affected.

Muscle weakness and altered levels of consciousness can occur in both conditions but are more prominent in encephalitis, which often presents with focal neurological deficits and seizures. The

Kernig sign, a classical sign of meningitis, is a physical examination finding that indicates irritation of the meninges and supports a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis when positive.

An elevated body temperature is common in bacterial meningitis, but it is not exclusive and can be observed in encephalitis as well.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus type 2 and presents for a follow-up visit. Which of the following lab values is most indicative of inadequate control of their diabetes since their last primary care visit and requires further teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is planning care for a client who has leukemia and a platelet count of 60,000/mm³ (nl. 140,000-400,000/mm³). Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"A,B"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A,B"}}

Explanation

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