A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

Distended neck veins

Elevated hematocrit level

Shortness of breath

Weight gain

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Distended neck veins: Distended neck veins are typically associated with fluid volume excess rather than deficit. In heart failure, venous congestion can cause jugular venous distention, indicating fluid volume overload rather than deficit. Therefore, this finding would not suggest fluid volume deficit in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide.
B) Elevated hematocrit level: Fluid volume deficit, also known as dehydration or hypovolemia, is characterized by a loss of both water and electrolytes from the body, leading to a relative increase in the concentration of red blood cells and other blood components. This increase in concentration results in an elevated hematocrit level, which is a common laboratory finding in clients with fluid volume deficit. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly used to manage fluid overload in clients with heart failure by promoting diuresis and reducing excess fluid retention. However, excessive diuresis with furosemide can lead to fluid volume deficit if not adequately monitored and managed.

C) Shortness of breath: Shortness of breath is a common symptom of heart failure, particularly when fluid accumulates in the lungs (pulmonary edema) due to fluid volume overload. While shortness of breath may be present in both fluid volume deficit and excess, it is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload in clients with heart failure.

D) Weight gain: Weight gain is indicative of fluid volume excess rather than deficit. In heart failure, weight gain often occurs due to fluid retention, reflecting an increase in total body water and extracellular fluid volume. Monitoring weight is essential in managing heart failure and assessing fluid status, but weight gain would not suggest fluid volume deficit in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure management.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.

B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.

C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.

D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.

A. Lactated Ringer's B. Dextrose 10% in water C. 0.45% sodi’m chloride D. 0.9% sodium chloride

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Lactated Ringer's: Lactated Ringer's solution is not app’opriate in this si’uation because it does not provide the necessary nutrients found in TPN. It is primarily used for fluid replacement and maintenance and does not contain the essential macronutrients required for TPN.

B) Dextrose 10% in water: This is the correct fluid to administer when the current bag of TPN has finished infusing and the next bag is not yet available. Dextrose 10% in water provides a source of glucose, which can help prevent hypoglycemia in clients dependent on TPN. While it does not provide the full spectrum of nutrients found in TPN, it can temporarily meet the client's caloric needs until the next bag of TP’ becomes available.

C) 0.45% sodium chloride: This solution, also known as half-normal saline, is hypotonic and primarily used for hydration and maintenance fluids. It does not provide adequate nutrition and is not a suitable substitute for TPN.

D) 0.9% sodium chloride: This solution, also known as normal saline, is isotonic and used for fluid resuscitation, maintenance, and replacement. Like 0.45% sodium chloride, it does not contain the necessary nutrients for TPN and is not appropriate as a substitute.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

Nursing Test Bank

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