A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

Distended neck veins

Elevated hematocrit level

Shortness of breath

Weight gain

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Distended neck veins: Distended neck veins are typically associated with fluid volume excess rather than deficit. In heart failure, venous congestion can cause jugular venous distention, indicating fluid volume overload rather than deficit. Therefore, this finding would not suggest fluid volume deficit in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide.
B) Elevated hematocrit level: Fluid volume deficit, also known as dehydration or hypovolemia, is characterized by a loss of both water and electrolytes from the body, leading to a relative increase in the concentration of red blood cells and other blood components. This increase in concentration results in an elevated hematocrit level, which is a common laboratory finding in clients with fluid volume deficit. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly used to manage fluid overload in clients with heart failure by promoting diuresis and reducing excess fluid retention. However, excessive diuresis with furosemide can lead to fluid volume deficit if not adequately monitored and managed.

C) Shortness of breath: Shortness of breath is a common symptom of heart failure, particularly when fluid accumulates in the lungs (pulmonary edema) due to fluid volume overload. While shortness of breath may be present in both fluid volume deficit and excess, it is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload in clients with heart failure.

D) Weight gain: Weight gain is indicative of fluid volume excess rather than deficit. In heart failure, weight gain often occurs due to fluid retention, reflecting an increase in total body water and extracellular fluid volume. Monitoring weight is essential in managing heart failure and assessing fluid status, but weight gain would not suggest fluid volume deficit in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure management.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Give diphenhydramine IM: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can help alleviate allergic symptoms such as itching, hives, and mild allergic reactions. However, in the case of an anaphylactic reaction, which is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction, diphenhydramine alone may not be sufficient. While it can be administered as an adjunctive therapy, it is not the primary intervention for anaphylaxis. Therefore, giving diphenhydramine IM should not be the next action after stopping the medication infusion.

B) Elevate the client's legs and feet: Elevating the client's legs and feet is a supportive measure that can help improve venous return to the heart and mitigate symptoms of hypotension. However, in the context of an anaphylactic reaction, the priority is to address airway compromise and cardiovascular collapse, as these are life-threatening complications. Elevating the legs and feet may be considered after administering epinephrine and ensuring stabilization of the client's airway, breathing, and circulation.

C) Replace the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride: While stopping the infusion of the offending medication is essential in managing an anaphylactic reaction, replacing it with 0.9% sodium chloride solution alone does not address the systemic effects of anaphylaxis. The priority is to administer medications such as epinephrine to reverse the allergic response and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, replacing the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride should not be the next action after stopping the medication infusion.

D) Administer epinephrine IM: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and increased vascular permeability associated with the allergic reaction. Administering epinephrine IM helps counteract the severe manifestations of anaphylaxis, including respiratory distress and hypotension. Therefore, it is the most appropriate next action after stopping the medication infusion and assessing the client's respiratory status.

A. Naloxone B. Atropine C. Midazolam D. Dexamethasone

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Naloxone: This is the correct medication to anticipate administering for opioid toxicity. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively blocks opioid receptors, reversing the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse the toxic effects of opioids and restore adequate ventilation and consciousness in the client.

B) Atropine: Atropine is not indicated for opioid toxicity. It is an anticholinergic medication used to treat bradycardia and to decrease respiratory secretions, but it does not reverse the effects of opioids.

C) Midazolam: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine medication used for sedation, anxiety reduction, and induction of anesthesia. While it may be used as an adjunct in the management of acute agitation or seizures, it is not the primary medication for reversing opioid toxicity.

D) Dexamethasone: Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid medication with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. It is not indicated for the treatment of opioid toxicity.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

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