A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has moist lung sounds, bounding pulse, increased blood pressure, and pitting peripheral edema. Which of the following is the nurse's priority intervention?
Administer diuretics.
Limit the client's fluid intake.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Place the client on a low-sodium diet.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Administer diuretics: The client's symptoms, moist lung sounds, bounding pulse, elevated blood pressure, and pitting edema indicate fluid volume overload. Administering prescribed diuretics is the priority intervention to rapidly reduce intravascular and interstitial fluid volume and relieve pulmonary congestion.
B. Limit the client's fluid intake: Fluid restriction helps manage ongoing fluid retention but does not address the immediate concern of volume overload. It is a supportive measure rather than the initial priority in acute decompensated heart failure.
C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter: While catheterization may help monitor output, it does not treat the underlying fluid excess. Inserting a catheter without addressing the fluid accumulation first does not provide immediate symptom relief.
D. Place the client on a low-sodium diet: A low-sodium diet is important for long-term management of heart failure, but it does not provide the prompt fluid removal needed in this acute situation. Immediate diuresis is necessary to reduce cardiac workload and respiratory distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E","F"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Blood pressure: The reading of 162/112 mm Hg meets the criteria for severe hypertension in pregnancy, which increases the risk of complications such as preeclampsia, placental abruption, and stroke.
B. Urine ketones: Ketones are negative, which rules out dehydration or starvation ketosis. Ketones would be more concerning if elevated alongside hyperemesis or gestational diabetes.
C. Fetal activity: Decreased fetal movement at 31 weeks may indicate fetal hypoxia or distress and requires urgent evaluation with nonstress testing or biophysical profiling.
D. Respiratory rate: The client’s respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range (12–20/min) and does not indicate respiratory distress or a complication.
E. Report of headache: A severe, persistent headache that is unrelieved by acetaminophen is a classic warning sign of central nervous system involvement in preeclampsia and may precede seizures (eclampsia).
F. Urine protein: The presence of 3+ proteinuria indicates significant renal involvement, supporting a diagnosis of preeclampsia, particularly when paired with hypertension and neurologic symptoms.
G. Gravida/parity: While a history of preterm birth is a known risk factor, her current symptoms point toward preeclampsia rather than complications directly linked to her obstetric history.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. “You can obtain a personal response system that will be activated if you fall.": Personal emergency response systems (PERS) allow individuals who live alone to call for help immediately in case of a fall or emergency.
B. “You need to move to a skilled nursing facility where they can prevent falls.": Moving to a skilled nursing facility is a major step and is not necessary solely due to fear of falling. It may also provoke anxiety or feelings of loss of autonomy, especially if less invasive alternatives are available.
C. "You can have an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) come to your house daily to stay with you.": Daily UAP support may not be realistic or necessary for someone who is still generally independent. This level of care may be excessive unless the client has significant mobility or cognitive impairments.
D. "You should contact a family member once a week to keep in touch.": While weekly contact with family can offer emotional support, it does not provide real-time assistance in the event of a fall. It’s not a sufficient solution for immediate safety concerns.
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