A nurse is caring for a client who has an endotracheal tube (ET) and is on mechanical ventilation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take for a ventilator alarm due to an increase in peak airway pressure? (Select all that apply.)

Check for a disconnection in the ventilator tubing.

Assess the ET for a cuff leak.

Verify the placement of the ET

Check for a kink in the ventilator tubing.

Suction the ET to remove secretions

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : D,E

Rationale:

A. Check for a disconnection in the ventilator tubing: A disconnection typically causes a low-pressure alarm, not an increase in peak airway pressure, and would not be the appropriate first response in this case.

B. Assess the ET for a cuff leak: A cuff leak would decrease airway pressure, potentially causing a low-pressure alarm. It is not associated with increased peak airway pressure alarms.

C. Verify the placement of the ET: ET tube misplacement can lead to ventilation issues, but it does not directly cause increased peak pressures unless malposition leads to obstruction, which would be less common.

D. Check for a kink in the ventilator tubing: A kink or obstruction in the tubing increases airway resistance and can cause high peak airway pressure alarms. Resolving the kink can restore normal pressure.

E. Suction the ET to remove secretions: Mucus plugging or secretion buildup increases resistance in the airway, raising peak pressures. Suctioning helps alleviate the obstruction and reduce alarm triggers.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water: Dextrose in water does not reverse magnesium toxicity. It may be used as a fluid carrier but does not serve as an antidote or address the neuromuscular and cardiac effects of excessive magnesium.

B. Administer calcium gluconate IV: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It helps reverse respiratory depression, muscle weakness, and cardiac conduction delays caused by high magnesium levels, making it the immediate intervention.

C. Position the client supine: The supine position can worsen hypotension by decreasing venous return, especially in pregnant clients. Left lateral positioning is generally preferred to improve circulation to vital organs and the fetus.

D. Administer methylergonovine IM: Methylergonovine is used to treat postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension or preeclampsia due to its vasoconstrictive effects. It does not treat magnesium toxicity and could increase blood pressure dangerously.

A. Butorphanol tartrate B. Pudendal block C. Naloxone hydrochloride D. Spinal anesthesia

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Butorphanol tartrate: This opioid analgesic can cause respiratory depression in the newborn if given too close to delivery. At 10 cm dilation and during pushing, it's generally too late to administer systemic opioids safely.

B. Pudendal block: A pudendal block provides localized perineal anesthesia and is safe for use during the second stage of labor when the client is fully dilated and pushing. It effectively reduces pain from stretching and pressure without affecting uterine contractions or fetal status.

C. Naloxone hydrochloride: Naloxone is not a pain-management measure; it is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. It does not provide analgesia and is not administered for pain relief during labor.

D. Spinal anesthesia: Spinal anesthesia is typically administered prior to a planned cesarean birth or late in the first stage of labor. It is not appropriate once the client is fully dilated and actively pushing, as it could delay delivery and complicate maternal positioning.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has an endotracheal tube (ET) and is on mechanical ventilation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take for a ventilator alarm due to an increase in peak airway pressure? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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