A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia.
Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
Calcium gluconate.
Acetylcysteine.
Flumazenil.
Protamine sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Calcium gluconate is used to treat hypermagnesemia because it can help calm some symptoms such as impaired breathing, irregular heartbeat, and hypotension. Calcium also helps normalize the neuromuscular function that is affected by excess magnesium.
Choice B. Acetylcysteine is wrong because it is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and prevent kidney damage from contrast dye.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice C. Flumazenil is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, a class of sedative drugs.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice D. Protamine sulfate is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant drug.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Normal ranges for magnesium are 1.7 to 2.3 mg/dL or 0.7 to 1.1 mmol/L. Hypermagnesemia is defined as a magnesium level above 2.6 mg/dL or 1.5 mmol/L.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because the umbilicus is a potential site of infection and should be avoided when administering subcutaneous heparin.
Choice B is wrong because massaging the site after administering the medication can cause bruising and hematoma formation.
Choice C is wrong because a 21-gauge needle is too large for subcutaneous injection and can cause tissue trauma and bleeding.
A smaller needle, such as 25- or 27-gauge, should be used.
Choice D is wrong because aspirating before injecting the medication can increase the risk of hematoma formation and is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin.
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