A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client
Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick.
Pulse rate 100/min.
Urine output 20 mL/hr.
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The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
Weight loss.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat fluid volume excess by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. Weight loss is an indication that the medication has been effective in reducing the excess fluid in the body.
Choice B is wrong because decreased inflammation is not a direct effect of furosemide.
Inflammation is a response to tissue injury or infection, and furosemide does not have any anti-inflammatory properties.
Choice C is wrong because increased blood pressure is not an indication of furosemide effectiveness.
Furosemide lowers blood pressure by reducing the preload and afterload on the heart.
Increased blood pressure may indicate that the dose of furosemide is insufficient or that there are other factors contributing to hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because decreased pain is not an expected outcome of furosemide therapy.
Furosemide does not have any analgesic effects, and pain may be caused by various conditions that are not related to fluid volume excess.
Normal ranges for weight, blood pressure and pain vary depending on the individual patient’s baseline and goals.
However, some general guidelines are:
- Weight: A weight loss of 0.5 to 1 kg per day is considered safe and effective for patients with fluid volume excess.
- Blood pressure: The target blood pressure for most patients with heart failure is less than 130/80 mmHg.
- Pain: The pain level should be assessed using a valid and reliable scale, such as the numeric rating scale or the visual analogue scale, and treated according to the patient’s preference and tolerance.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A option
Fibrinogen level: Fibrinogen is a protein involved in the blood clotting process, but in this case, it is not appropriate because is not the primary laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy. Monitoring fibrinogen levels is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders or certain medical conditions.
Choice B option
PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time): PTT is another laboratory test used to evaluate blood clotting function, particularly the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. PTT is not routinely used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to monitor other anticoagulant medications like heparin.
Choice C option
The nurse should plan to report the client's INR (International Normalized Ratio) to obtain a prescription for the client's daily warfarin. INR is a critical laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy.
Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed to prevent and treat blood clots. It works by interfering with the body's ability to use vitamin K to form blood clots. Monitoring the INR is essential because it indicates how long it takes for the blood to clot, and it helps determine if the client's warfarin dosage needs adjustment to achieve the desired level of anticoagulation.
Choice D option
Platelet count: Platelet count is essential to assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for normal clotting. However, platelet count monitoring is not the primary focus when prescribing warfarin. It is typically used to evaluate thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) or other conditions affecting platelet function.
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