A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy and has a chest tube drainage system in place. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Chest tube eyelets not visible
Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is: a. Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Choice A: Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Reason: Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air gets trapped under the skin, often due to a leak from the lung or chest tube. This can indicate a serious complication such as a pneumothorax or a malfunctioning chest tube, requiring immediate medical intervention. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema can lead to discomfort, respiratory distress, and further complications if not addressed promptly.
Choice B: Chest tube eyelets not visible
Reason: The eyelets of a chest tube are small holes at the end of the tube that allow air and fluid to drain from the pleural space. These eyelets are typically covered by a dressing and may not be visible. This is not necessarily a cause for concern unless there are other signs of malfunction or complications.
Choice C: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Reason: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates that the suction is functioning properly. It does not indicate a problem unless the bubbling is in the water seal chamber, which would suggest an air leak.
Choice D: Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
Reason: Tidal fluctuation, or tidaling, in the water seal chamber is a normal finding. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and functioning correctly, as the water level rises with inhalation and falls with exhalation. The absence of tidaling could indicate a blockage or that the lung has fully re-expanded.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Eliciting the gag reflex is not a valid way to assess cranial nerve III. The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents choking or aspiration by triggering a contraction of the pharyngeal muscles when the back of the throat is stimulated. The gag reflex is mediated by cranial nerves IX and X, not III.
Choice B reason: Checking the pupillary response to light is a reliable way to assess cranial nerve III. The pupillary response to light is a reflex that causes the pupil to constrict when exposed to bright light and dilate when exposed to dim light. This reflex helps to regulate the amount of light that enters the eye and protects the retina from damage. The pupillary response to light is controlled by cranial nerve III, which innervates the sphincter pupillae muscle that constricts the pupil.
Choice C reason: Observing for facial symmetry is not a relevant way to assess cranial nerve III. Facial symmetry is the degree of similarity between the two halves of the face. Facial symmetry can be affected by various factors, such as genetics, aging, or facial nerve palsy. Facial nerve palsy is a condition that causes weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control facial expression. Facial nerve palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerve VII, not III.
Choice D reason: Testing visual acuity is not a sufficient way to assess cranial nerve III. Visual acuity is the ability to see fine details and distinguish objects at a distance. Visual acuity depends on various factors, such as the clarity of the lens and cornea, the shape of the eyeball, and the function of the retina. Visual acuity is mainly affected by cranial nerve II, which carries visual information from the retina to the brain. Cranial nerve III does not directly influence visual acuity, but it does innervate some of the muscles that move the eye and enable binocular vision.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Positioning the head of the client’s bed in the flat position is not a good way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. This position can increase the risk of aspiration of oral secretions or gastric contents into the lungs, which can cause infection. The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees to prevent aspiration and promote drainage of secretions.
Choice B reason: Brushing the client’s teeth with a suction toothbrush every 12 hr is an effective way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. Oral hygiene can reduce the number of bacteria in the mouth and prevent the formation of dental plaque, which can harbor pathogens that can cause pneumonia. The nurse should use a suction toothbrush to remove debris and secretions from the mouth and prevent them from entering the lungs.
Choice C reason: Providing humidity by maintaining moisture within the ventilator tubing is not a helpful way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. Humidity can increase the growth of bacteria and fungi in the ventilator circuit, which can contaminate the air delivered to the lungs. The nurse should change the ventilator tubing and filters regularly and use sterile water to fill the humidifier.
Choice D reason: Turning the client every 4 hr is not a sufficient way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. Turning can help prevent pressure ulcers and improve blood circulation, but it does not prevent the accumulation of secretions in the lungs, which can cause infection. The nurse should use chest physiotherapy, suctioning, and coughing techniques to mobilize and clear secretions from the airways.
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