A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy and has a chest tube drainage system in place. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Chest tube eyelets not visible
Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is: a. Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Choice A: Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Reason: Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air gets trapped under the skin, often due to a leak from the lung or chest tube. This can indicate a serious complication such as a pneumothorax or a malfunctioning chest tube, requiring immediate medical intervention. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema can lead to discomfort, respiratory distress, and further complications if not addressed promptly.
Choice B: Chest tube eyelets not visible
Reason: The eyelets of a chest tube are small holes at the end of the tube that allow air and fluid to drain from the pleural space. These eyelets are typically covered by a dressing and may not be visible. This is not necessarily a cause for concern unless there are other signs of malfunction or complications.
Choice C: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Reason: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates that the suction is functioning properly. It does not indicate a problem unless the bubbling is in the water seal chamber, which would suggest an air leak.
Choice D: Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
Reason: Tidal fluctuation, or tidaling, in the water seal chamber is a normal finding. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and functioning correctly, as the water level rises with inhalation and falls with exhalation. The absence of tidaling could indicate a blockage or that the lung has fully re-expanded.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. It is not best to take medication with meals. Rifampin is better absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. Taking rifampin with food can reduce its effectiveness and increase the risk of drug resistance. The nurse should advise the client to take the medication as directed by the doctor, and to avoid foods that can interact with rifampin, such as cheese, yogurt, or alcohol.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Treatment with this medication will not last for 1 month. Rifampin is usually given as part of a combination therapy for pulmonary tuberculosis, along with other drugs such as isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The standard treatment regimen for drug susceptible tuberculosis consists of an intensive phase of 2 months, followed by a continuation phase of 4 or 7 months, depending on the drug regimen and the patient's response. The nurse should inform the client about the duration and the importance of completing the full course of treatment, even if the symptoms improve or the tests become negative.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. This medication does not cause insomnia. Rifampin does not affect the sleep cycle or the quality of sleep. However, rifampin can cause other side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, or rash. The nurse should instruct the client to report any severe or persistent side effects to the doctor, and to avoid taking over-the-counter drugs or herbal supplements without consulting the doctor, as rifampin can interact with many other medications and reduce their effectiveness.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Urine and other secretions might turn orange. Rifampin can cause a harmless discoloration of body fluids, such as urine, saliva, sweat, tears, or breast milk. The color can range from orange to red or brown, depending on the concentration of the drug and the pH of the fluid. The nurse should reassure the client that this is a normal and expected effect of rifampin, and that it does not indicate any damage to the kidneys or other organs. The nurse should also warn the client that rifampin can stain contact lenses, dentures, or clothing, and advise the client to use disposable lenses, remove dentures before taking the drug, and wear dark colored clothes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is: d. On the nonoperative side
Choice A: Prone
Reason: Placing a patient in the prone position (lying face down) after a pneumonectomy is generally not recommended. This position can compromise respiratory function by restricting chest expansion and increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Additionally, it can place undue pressure on the surgical site, potentially leading to complications such as impaired wound healing or increased pain.
Choice B: Semi-Fowler’s
Reason: The Semi-Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees) is often used to promote lung expansion and reduce the risk of aspiration. While it can be beneficial for general postoperative care, it is not the optimal position for a patient who has undergone a pneumonectomy. This position does not specifically address the need to prevent fluid accumulation in the remaining lung.
Choice C: Sims
Reason: The Sims position (lying on the side with one leg bent) is typically used for procedures such as enemas or to facilitate drainage of oral secretions. It is not suitable for a postoperative pneumonectomy patient because it does not provide the necessary support to the remaining lung and can increase the risk of fluid shifting to the nonoperative side.
Choice D: On the nonoperative side
Reason: Placing the patient on the nonoperative side is the correct position. This position helps to prevent fluid from accumulating in the remaining lung and reduces the risk of complications such as mediastinal shift or respiratory distress. By positioning the patient on the nonoperative side, gravity helps to keep the remaining lung expanded and functional.
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