A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Lochia rubra with small clots

Minimal perineal edema

Boggy fundus

Temperature 37.7° C (99.9° F)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

. Lochia rubra with small clots:

Lochia rubra is the normal vaginal discharge occurring after childbirth, consisting of blood, mucus, and uterine tissue. It is expected for lochia to be present in the immediate postpartum period, and small clots are also considered normal as long as they are not excessive in size. Therefore, this finding is within the expected range for a client who is 1 hour postpartum and does not require immediate reporting to the provider.

B. Minimal perineal edema:

Perineal edema, or swelling in the perineal area, can be common after childbirth, particularly following vaginal delivery or if there was perineal trauma during labor. Some degree of perineal edema is generally expected in the immediate postpartum period and may resolve with time and appropriate care. As long as the edema is minimal and not causing significant discomfort or obstructing the assessment, it is not typically a cause for immediate concern or reporting to the provider.

C. Boggy fundus:

A boggy fundus refers to a uterus that feels soft and mushy instead of firm and well-contracted. It suggests uterine atony, which is a significant concern in the postpartum period as it can lead to excessive bleeding and postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, a boggy fundus should be reported promptly to the provider so that interventions can be initiated to address the uterine atony and prevent complications.

D. Temperature 37.7°C (99.9°F):

A temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F) is slightly elevated but may still fall within the normal range for the immediate postpartum period. While fever can indicate infection, a single temperature reading alone may not be sufficient to confirm an infection. It is important for the nurse to continue monitoring the client's temperature and assess for other signs and symptoms of infection before reporting to the provider. Therefore, this finding does not necessarily warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms suggestive of infection.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine:
The HPV vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy because there is limited safety data regarding its use in pregnant women. It is typically administered to individuals before they become sexually active to prevent HPV infections, which can lead to cervical cancer and other HPV-related diseases. Since the client is currently pregnant, administering the HPV vaccine would not be appropriate due to the lack of safety data during pregnancy.

B. Rubella vaccine:
The rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine, and its administration during pregnancy is contraindicated due to the risk of congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) if the vaccine were to cause rubella infection in the pregnant woman. Rubella vaccination should be provided to non-pregnant individuals, particularly women of childbearing age, to prevent CRS. Administering the rubella vaccine to a pregnant woman at 28 weeks of gestation would pose a risk to both the mother and the developing fetus.

C. Varicella vaccine:
Similar to the rubella vaccine, the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of varicella infection in the pregnant woman, which can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. Varicella vaccination is recommended for individuals who have not had chickenpox or received the vaccine previously but should not be administered to pregnant women.

D. Tetanus vaccine:
Tetanus vaccination during pregnancy is recommended to prevent maternal and neonatal tetanus. Tetanus toxoid is considered safe during pregnancy and is routinely administered as part of the tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The tetanus vaccine helps protect against tetanus, a potentially fatal bacterial infection. Administering the tetanus vaccine during pregnancy is important for the health and safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

A. Mucous membrane assessment B. Sclera color C. Head assessment finding D. Intake and output E. Coombs test result F. Respiratory rate

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A.Dry mucous membranes may indicate dehydration. The newborn is breastfeeding only 3–4 times per day, which is lower than the recommended 8–12 feedings per day for adequate hydration and nutrition.

B.Yellow sclera suggests jaundice, which could indicate neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. Since the newborn is Coombs-positive, there is an increased risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) due to blood incompatibility, making bilirubin monitoring essential.

D.The newborn has voided only once in 36 hours, which may indicate dehydration or inadequate fluid intake. Additionally, the absence of a meconium stool may suggest intestinal obstruction, delayed passage, or meconium plug syndrome, requiring further evaluation.

E.A positive Coombs test means that maternal antibodies have attacked the newborn’s red blood cells, increasing the risk of hemolytic anemia and jaundice. This finding correlates with the yellow sclera, necessitating further bilirubin monitoring.

Incorrect answers:

C.Caput succedaneum is benign and self-resolving. It is a soft tissue swelling from birth trauma and does not require intervention.

F.A respiratory rate of 44 breaths/min is within the normal range (30–60 breaths/min) for a newborn and does not indicate distress.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

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