A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
Elevated blood pressure
Increased urine output
Joint pain
Vaginal discharge
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Elevated blood pressure is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause serious complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly and report any readings above 140/90 mm Hg to the provider.
Choice B reason: Increased urine output is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal physiological change of pregnancy, as the renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate increase. A client with preeclampsia may have decreased urine output, which can indicate renal impairment or oligohydramnios.
Choice C reason: Joint pain is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a common discomfort of pregnancy, as the hormones relaxin and progesterone loosen the ligaments and joints. A client with preeclampsia may have epigastric pain, which can indicate liver involvement or impending eclampsia.
Choice D reason: Vaginal discharge is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal occurrence of pregnancy, as the cervical glands secrete more mucus to protect the uterus from infection. A client with preeclampsia may have vaginal bleeding, which can indicate placental abruption or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: AFI stands for amniotic fluid index, which is a measurement of the amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. AFI is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal urine output and the placental function. A normal AFI is between 5 and 25 cm. A low AFI (< 5 cm) can suggest fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or fetal distress. A high AFI (> 25 cm) can suggest fetal anomalies, polyhydramnios, or maternal diabetes.
Choice B reason: Fetal heart rate is an assessment of the fetal cardiac activity, which is usually monitored by a non-stress test (NST). Fetal heart rate is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal oxygenation and the autonomic nervous system. A normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, with moderate variability and accelerations. A non-reactive fetal heart rate (< 2 accelerations in 20 minutes) can suggest fetal hypoxia, acidosis, or distress.
Choice C reason: Fetal movement is an assessment of the fetal gross body movements, which are usually counted by the mother or observed by ultrasound. Fetal movement is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal activity and the central nervous system. A normal fetal movement is at least 3 movements in 30 minutes. A decreased fetal movement (< 3 movements in 2 hours) can suggest fetal sleep, sedation, or distress.
Choice D reason: Fetal tone is an assessment of the fetal muscle tone, which is usually observed by ultrasound. Fetal tone is an indicator of fetal well-being, as it reflects the fetal maturity and the neuromuscular system. A normal fetal tone is at least 1 episode of fetal flexion or extension in 30 minutes. An abnormal fetal tone (absent or hypotonic) can suggest fetal immaturity, anomalies, or distress.
Choice E reason: Placental grade is not an assessment that is included in the fetal biophysical profile (BPP), as it is not a direct measure of fetal well-being, but rather a classification of the placental maturity and calcification. Placental grade is usually evaluated by ultrasound, and it ranges from 0 to 3, with higher grades indicating more calcification and aging. Placental grade can affect the placental function and the fetal growth, but it is not a reliable or consistent indicator of fetal distress.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: "I'll basically follow the same diet that I was following before I became pregnant." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the need for dietary changes during pregnancy. The client should follow a diet that is individualized, balanced, and consistent in carbohydrate intake, and that meets the nutritional needs of pregnancy.
Choice B reason: "Because I need extra protein, I'll have to increase my intake of milk and meat." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the role of protein in diabetes management. The client should consume adequate but not excessive amounts of protein, and choose lean sources of protein, such as poultry, fish, eggs, and legumes.
Choice C reason: "I'll adjust my diet and insulin based on the results of my urine tests for glucose." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the limitations of urine tests for glucose. The client should monitor her blood glucose levels regularly, and adjust her diet and insulin accordingly, under the guidance of the provider. Urine tests for glucose are not accurate or reliable indicators of blood glucose levels.
Choice D reason: "Pregnancy affects insulin production, so I'll need to make adjustments in my diet." is a correct statement, because it indicates that the client understands the impact of pregnancy on diabetes. The client should be aware that pregnancy can cause insulin resistance, especially in the second and third trimesters, and that her diet may need to be modified to achieve optimal glycemic control.
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