A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
Elevated blood pressure
Increased urine output
Joint pain
Vaginal discharge
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Elevated blood pressure is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause serious complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly and report any readings above 140/90 mm Hg to the provider.
Choice B reason: Increased urine output is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal physiological change of pregnancy, as the renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate increase. A client with preeclampsia may have decreased urine output, which can indicate renal impairment or oligohydramnios.
Choice C reason: Joint pain is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a common discomfort of pregnancy, as the hormones relaxin and progesterone loosen the ligaments and joints. A client with preeclampsia may have epigastric pain, which can indicate liver involvement or impending eclampsia.
Choice D reason: Vaginal discharge is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal occurrence of pregnancy, as the cervical glands secrete more mucus to protect the uterus from infection. A client with preeclampsia may have vaginal bleeding, which can indicate placental abruption or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Molar pregnancy is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a gestational trophoblastic disease that causes an abnormal growth of the placenta and the production of high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is a hormone that stimulates nausea and vomiting. Molar pregnancy can cause severe and persistent hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as vaginal bleeding, uterine enlargement, and preeclampsia.
Choice B reason: Previous history of hyperemesis gravidarum is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it suggests a genetic or physiological predisposition to the condition. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs in pregnancy, and it can cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, weight loss, and malnutrition. Hyperemesis gravidarum can recur in subsequent pregnancies, especially if the mother has the same partner, the same sex of the fetus, or a short interval between pregnancies.
Choice C reason: Oligohydramnios is not a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a low level of amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus. Oligohydramnios is not related to hyperemesis gravidarum, and it is not a cause or a consequence of it. Oligohydramnios can affect the fetal development and the delivery, as it can cause fetal growth restriction, cord compression, or meconium aspiration.
Choice D reason: Multiple fetal gestation is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a condition where the mother is carrying more than one fetus. Multiple fetal gestation can cause higher levels of hCG, estrogen, and progesterone, which are hormones that stimulate nausea and vomiting. Multiple fetal gestation can cause more severe and prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as preterm labor, anemia, and preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing a dark, quiet environment is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it can help reduce the client's blood pressure and prevent seizures.
Choice B reason: Evaluating neurologic status every 12 hr is not an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is not frequent enough. The nurse should assess the client's neurologic status every 2 to 4 hr, or more often if indicated, to detect signs of cerebral edema or eclampsia.
Choice C reason: Assessing respiratory status every 8 hr is not an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is not frequent enough. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory status every 1 to 2 hr, or more often if indicated, to detect signs of pulmonary edema or respiratory depression.
Choice D reason: Ensuring that calcium gluconate is readily available is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should have calcium gluconate on hand and know how to administer it in case of an emergency.
Choice E reason: Administering magnesium sulfate IV is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is the drug of choice for preventing and treating seizures in clients with severe gestational hypertension. The nurse should follow the protocol for magnesium sulfate administration and monitor the client's vital signs, urine output, reflexes, and serum magnesium levels.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.