A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
Elevated blood pressure
Increased urine output
Joint pain
Vaginal discharge
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Elevated blood pressure is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia, which is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause serious complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly and report any readings above 140/90 mm Hg to the provider.
Choice B reason: Increased urine output is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal physiological change of pregnancy, as the renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate increase. A client with preeclampsia may have decreased urine output, which can indicate renal impairment or oligohydramnios.
Choice C reason: Joint pain is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a common discomfort of pregnancy, as the hormones relaxin and progesterone loosen the ligaments and joints. A client with preeclampsia may have epigastric pain, which can indicate liver involvement or impending eclampsia.
Choice D reason: Vaginal discharge is not a sign of preeclampsia, but rather a normal occurrence of pregnancy, as the cervical glands secrete more mucus to protect the uterus from infection. A client with preeclampsia may have vaginal bleeding, which can indicate placental abruption or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation is a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can help delay the delivery and allow time for fetal lung maturation and transfer to a tertiary care center. Tocolytic therapy is indicated for clients who have regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice B reason: A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it has no benefit for the mother or the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have fetal demise, as it can increase the risk of infection and coagulation disorders.
Choice C reason: A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it can harm the mother and the fetus. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated for clients who have post-term pregnancy, as it can increase the risk of placental insufficiency, fetal distress, and meconium aspiration.
Choice D reason: A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation is not a suitable candidate for tocolytic therapy, because it is not necessary or effective. Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and painless contractions that do not cause cervical changes or labor. They are normal and harmless, and do not require any intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Preeclampsia is not the correct answer, as it is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that causes high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. Preeclampsia can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, which is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, but it is not a complication of it. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site, but rather headaches, blurred vision, or epigastric pain.
Choice B reason: Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy is not the correct answer, as it is a rare and fatal condition that occurs when the amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and causes an allergic reaction. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy would cause respiratory distress, hypotension, or cardiac arrest.
Choice C reason: Puerperal infection is not the correct answer, as it is a bacterial infection of the reproductive tract that occurs after childbirth. Puerperal infection can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Puerperal infection would cause fever, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the correct answer, as it is a coagulation disorder that causes widespread clotting and bleeding in the body. Disseminated intravascular coagulation can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, and it is indicated by the petechiae and bleeding around the IV access site. Disseminated intravascular coagulation would also cause a low platelet count, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and a low fibrinogen level.
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