A nurse is preparing to administer atenolol 50 mg PO daily to a client. The amount available is atenolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose?
(Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero)
The Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
To calculate the number of tablets, the nurse should use the following formula:
Number of tablets = (Desired dose / Available dose) x (Available form / Desired form)
In this case, the desired dose is 50 mg, the available dose is 100 mg, the available form is 1 tablet, and the desired form is 1 tablet. Therefore, the formula becomes:
Number of tablets = (50 mg / 100 mg) x (1 tablet / 1 tablet)
Number of tablets = 0.5 x 1
Number of tablets = 0.5
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest tenth, which is 0.5. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is 0.5. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 0.5 and not 0.50.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.
Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.
Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.
Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age is not a typical manifestation of ectopic pregnancy, because the embryo is implanted outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. The uterus may be slightly enlarged due to hormonal changes, but not more than expected for the gestational age.
Choice B reason: Unilateral, cramp-like abdominal pain is a common manifestation of ectopic pregnancy, because the embryo grows and stretches the fallopian tube, causing inflammation and irritation. The pain may be mild or severe, depending on the size and location of the ectopic pregnancy, and may radiate to the shoulder or back.
Choice C reason: Severe nausea and vomiting is not a specific manifestation of ectopic pregnancy, because it can be caused by other conditions, such as hyperemesis gravidarum, gastroenteritis, or appendicitis. The client may have mild nausea and vomiting due to hormonal changes, but not more than usual for the gestational age.
Choice D reason: Large amount of vaginal bleeding is not a usual manifestation of ectopic pregnancy, because the bleeding is usually internal, into the abdominal cavity. The client may have spotting or light bleeding due to the detachment of the endometrium, but not heavy or profuse bleeding.
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