A nurse is preparing to administer atenolol 50 mg PO daily to a client. The amount available is atenolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose?
(Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero)
The Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
To calculate the number of tablets, the nurse should use the following formula:
Number of tablets = (Desired dose / Available dose) x (Available form / Desired form)
In this case, the desired dose is 50 mg, the available dose is 100 mg, the available form is 1 tablet, and the desired form is 1 tablet. Therefore, the formula becomes:
Number of tablets = (50 mg / 100 mg) x (1 tablet / 1 tablet)
Number of tablets = 0.5 x 1
Number of tablets = 0.5
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest tenth, which is 0.5. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is 0.5. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 0.5 and not 0.50.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. No special treatment is necessary.
Choice A reason: Prone positioning is not typically recommended for a fractured clavicle in infants. It does not facilitate bone alignment in the case of clavicle fractures and is not part of standard care.
Choice B reason: This is the correct choice because clavicle fractures in newborns generally heal on their own without the need for special treatment. Parents may be instructed to pin the child’s sleeve to the front of their clothing to avoid moving the arm while it heals, but beyond gentle handling, no other special treatment is necessary. In most cases, clavicle fractures in newborns heal very quickly without any problems, and usually, no treatment is required.
Choice C reason: Immobilization and casting are not standard care for newborn clavicle fractures. These fractures typically heal without such interventions, and immobilization with a cast is not needed for these types of injuries in infants.
Choice D reason: While range-of-motion exercises might be beneficial later in the healing process, they are not the primary consideration immediately after the fracture occurs. The initial care plan focuses on gentle handling and comfort for the infant, not on exercises.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Polyuria is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, diabetes, or renal impairment. A client with severe preeclampsia may have oliguria, which is a urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours, due to the decreased renal perfusion and function.
Choice B reason: Report of headache is an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or vasospasm. A client with severe preeclampsia may also have other neurological symptoms, such as blurred vision, scotoma, photophobia, or hyperreflexia.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, infection, anxiety, or fetal distress. A client with severe preeclampsia may have bradycardia, which is a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute, due to the increased vagal tone and blood pressure.
Choice D reason: Absence of clonus is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate normal or decreased neuromuscular irritability. A client with severe preeclampsia may have positive clonus, which is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed, due to the increased reflex excitability and hyperactivity.
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