A nurse is assessing a client who is taking ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone for contraception.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as a potential adverse effect of this medication combination?
Weight loss.
Easy bruising.
Low blood pressure.
Breakthrough bleeding.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone, a common oral contraceptive combination, can sometimes lead to weight gain rather than weight loss. This is often attributed to fluid retention and changes in appetite or metabolism, rather than a catabolic effect causing weight reduction.
Choice B rationale
Easy bruising is not a typical manifestation of ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone use. While some hormonal contraceptives can affect coagulation factors, leading to an increased risk of thrombosis, they do not generally cause increased capillary fragility or platelet dysfunction manifesting as easy bruising.
Choice C rationale
Oral contraceptives containing estrogen, such as ethinyl estradiol, can actually cause a slight increase in blood pressure in some individuals due to their effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to sodium and water retention. Low blood pressure is not a common adverse effect.
Choice D rationale
Breakthrough bleeding, or irregular uterine bleeding that occurs during hormone therapy, is a common adverse effect of combined oral contraceptives like ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone, especially during the initial cycles of use. It results from an imbalance in the hormonal effects on the endometrium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Androgen therapy can lead to fluid retention, which would typically cause weight gain rather than weight loss. Androgens promote anabolism and can increase muscle mass and erythrocyte production, but they also influence fluid balance by affecting renal sodium and water reabsorption.
Choice B rationale
Androgen therapy generally does not cause hypotension. In some cases, it may lead to a slight increase in blood pressure due to fluid retention and effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Hypotension is not a recognized common adverse effect of androgen therapy.
Choice C rationale
Androgen therapy does promote muscle hypertrophy due to its anabolic effects, increasing protein synthesis and muscle mass. However, this is generally a desired therapeutic effect, not an adverse effect requiring monitoring for cessation, especially when used for conditions like muscle wasting.
Choice D rationale
Androgens can cause fluid retention, leading to edema. This occurs due to their influence on mineralocorticoid receptors in the renal tubules, which promotes sodium and water reabsorption. Nurses should monitor for signs of fluid overload, such as peripheral or pulmonary edema, and changes in body weight.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker primarily used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure. It works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and blood pressure. It is not indicated for managing tremors or dyskinesias associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy in Parkinson's disease, as these are typically dopaminergic in origin.
Choice B rationale
Bethanechol is a muscarinic cholinergic agonist that increases bladder tone and stimulates gastrointestinal motility. It is primarily used for urinary retention and gastroesophageal reflux disease. Its mechanism involves directly stimulating muscarinic receptors. It has no role in addressing the motor complications like tremors and twitching seen with levodopa/carbidopa in Parkinson's disease.
Choice C rationale
Amantadine is an antiviral drug also used to treat dyskinesia associated with levodopa therapy in Parkinson's disease. Its precise mechanism of action in Parkinson's is not fully understood, but it is thought to modulate dopaminergic and glutamatergic neurotransmission. It can help reduce tremors, rigidity, and involuntary movements.
Choice D rationale
Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant and neuropathic pain medication. It is structurally related to GABA but does not act directly on GABA receptors. Its mechanism of action involves modulating calcium channels. While it can treat some neurological symptoms, it is not a primary treatment for levodopa-induced tremors and twitching in Parkinson's disease.
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