A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled to receive chemotherapy and has a prescription for ondansetron to control nausea and vomiting.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Restlessness is an expected adverse effect of the medication.
Take the medication 30 minutes after chemotherapy.
Acute nausea resolves within 12 hours of chemotherapy administration.
Additional medications can be required if nausea persists.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Restlessness, also known as akathisia, is not a typical expected adverse effect of ondansetron. Ondansetron primarily acts as a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, blocking serotonin's emetogenic effects in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and gastrointestinal tract. Common adverse effects are generally mild, including headache, constipation, or diarrhea, with neurological effects like restlessness being rare and atypical for this drug's primary mechanism.
Choice B rationale
Ondansetron should be administered prophylactically, typically 30 minutes *before* chemotherapy, to achieve optimal antiemetic effect. Its mechanism involves blocking serotonin receptors that, when activated by chemotherapy, trigger nausea and vomiting. Pre-emptive administration ensures therapeutic drug levels are present to counteract the emetogenic stimuli effectively before their onset.
Choice C rationale
Acute nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy can persist for significantly longer than 12 hours, often lasting for 24 to 48 hours or even longer depending on the specific chemotherapeutic agent and its emetogenic potential. The duration of emesis is highly variable and directly related to the drug's pharmacokinetic profile and the extent of serotonin release.
Choice D rationale
If nausea persists despite ondansetron administration, it indicates an inadequate antiemetic response, likely due to the complex neurochemical pathways involved in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This often necessitates a multi-modal approach, involving the addition of other antiemetic agents like corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone) or neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists (e.g., aprepitant) to target different emetogenic pathways for more complete symptom control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium levels within the normal range (1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L) are important for overall electrolyte balance, but sodium polystyrene sulfonate specifically targets potassium. While hyperkalemia can sometimes be associated with other electrolyte imbalances, a normal magnesium level does not directly indicate a therapeutic response to sodium polystyrene sulfonate, as its primary action is not on magnesium.
Choice B rationale
Calcium levels within the normal range (9 to 10.5 mg/dL) are essential for various physiological functions. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate primarily exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions, not calcium. Therefore, a normal calcium level does not reflect a therapeutic response to the medication, which is specifically aimed at reducing elevated potassium levels.
Choice C rationale
Sodium levels within the normal range (136 to 145 mEq/L) are crucial for fluid balance and neurological function. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate exchanges sodium for potassium, meaning it increases the body's sodium load. While a normal sodium level is desirable, it does not directly indicate the therapeutic efficacy of the medication in reducing potassium.
Choice D rationale
Potassium 4.8 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L) indicates a therapeutic response. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an ion-exchange resin used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging potassium ions for sodium ions in the gastrointestinal tract. A potassium level returning to within the normal range, from a previously elevated state, signifies that the medication has effectively lowered the excess potassium.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Notifying the client's provider is the first and most critical step. The provider needs to be immediately informed of the medication error, as they are responsible for assessing the client's current condition, determining the potential impact of the incorrect medication, and ordering necessary interventions or monitoring.
Choice B rationale
Completing an incident report is important for quality improvement and safety, but it should be done after the immediate safety of the client has been addressed and the provider has been notified. The priority is always patient well-being and clinical management.
Choice C rationale
While reviewing possible adverse effects is part of understanding the situation, the nurse's primary action should be to involve the prescribing authority. The provider can then provide specific guidance for monitoring and management based on the client's individual health status.
Choice D rationale
Administering clonazepam as prescribed should be done once the immediate risk from the clonidine has been assessed and managed, and the provider has given appropriate instructions. Giving the correct medication immediately without assessing the impact of the error could be premature or harmful.
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