A nurse is assessing a client who is taking losartan.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Hypertension.
Double vision.
Dizziness.
Hyperactivity.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) which works by preventing angiotensin II from binding to its receptors in vascular smooth muscle, thereby causing vasodilation and lowering blood pressure. Hypertension is the condition losartan is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect, because its mechanism directly counteracts the vasoconstrictive effects of angiotensin II. The intended therapeutic effect is a reduction in systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
Double vision, also known as diplopia, is not a recognized common or significant adverse effect of losartan. The mechanism of action of losartan primarily targets the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), influencing blood pressure regulation and fluid balance, not directly affecting the central nervous system or ocular motor function. This symptom would be more indicative of neurological or ophthalmological issues unrelated to the medication's primary action.
Choice C rationale
Dizziness is a common adverse effect of losartan. This is a direct consequence of its therapeutic action, which is to lower blood pressure. The resulting vasodilation and reduced blood pressure can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing feelings of lightheadedness or dizziness, especially when a person changes positions, like standing up. The brain's reduced perfusion pressure triggers this sensation as a physiological response.
Choice D rationale
Hyperactivity is not an expected adverse effect of losartan. The medication primarily affects the cardiovascular system by modulating the RAAS to lower blood pressure. It does not have known stimulant properties that would lead to increased energy, restlessness, or hyperactivity. Such a finding would likely be attributed to other factors or a different underlying condition, not the pharmacological action of this medication. *.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Scant lochia rubra with a few small clots is a normal finding at 2 days postpartum. Lochia rubra, which is dark red discharge, is expected during the first 3-4 days. Scant bleeding and small clots are considered normal and indicate the uterine healing process is progressing appropriately. Excessive bleeding or large clots would be cause for concern.
Choice B rationale
Bilateral ankle edema is a common and expected finding at 2 days postpartum. This is due to the mobilization of fluid retained during pregnancy and the effects of gravity. While it should be monitored, it typically resolves on its own. The nurse should assess for other signs of a more serious condition, such as unilateral leg swelling, pain, or redness, which could indicate a deep vein thrombosis.
Choice C rationale
A urine output of 2,500 mL/day is within the expected range for a postpartum client. Diuresis is a normal physiological process during the first few days after birth, as the body eliminates the excess fluid volume accumulated during pregnancy. Urine output typically ranges from 2,000 to 3,000 mL/day, indicating adequate kidney function and fluid mobilization.
Choice D rationale
Deep-tendon reflexes of 4+ are a hyperreflexic finding that can indicate a neurological complication, such as preeclampsia. Normal deep-tendon reflexes are typically 1+ to 2+. Hyperreflexia is a sign of central nervous system irritability and can precede seizure activity, making it a critical finding that requires immediate reporting to the provider for further assessment and intervention. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A protective environment is typically indicated for immunocompromised clients, such as those with neutropenia or undergoing chemotherapy, not for uncomplicated anemia. The toddler’s white blood cell count is within the normal range of 5,000 to 10,000/mm³, and no evidence of infection risk or severe immunodeficiency is present. Pallor and low hemoglobin are consistent with iron deficiency anemia, which does not require isolation precautions unless additional hematologic compromise is identified.
Choice B rationale: Blood transfusions are reserved for cases of severe anemia with hemodynamic instability, cardiac compromise, or hemoglobin levels below 7 g/dL. This toddler’s hemoglobin is 8.1 g/dL, which while low, does not meet transfusion threshold in a stable, asymptomatic pediatric patient. Transfusion carries risks like iron overload and alloimmunization, making it inappropriate for mild to moderate anemia. Instead, correction through dietary modification and iron supplementation is preferred for age-related iron-deficiency anemia.
Choice C rationale: Iron supplementation is the standard therapy for iron deficiency anemia, especially in toddlers consuming excessive cow’s milk, which lacks iron and can cause occult intestinal blood loss. Hemoglobin of 8.1 g/dL is below the normal pediatric range of 9.5 to 14 g/dL, confirming anemia. Iron replenishment stimulates erythropoiesis by enabling hemoglobin synthesis. Supplementation corrects deficiency over time and should be paired with dietary education to limit milk to <24 oz/day and include iron-rich foods.
Choice D rationale: Continuing antibiotics is unnecessary unless there is ongoing infection. The toddler has recently completed antibiotic therapy for otitis media, and current symptoms do not suggest infection recurrence. Vital signs are stable and the white blood cell count is within normal limits (5,000–10,000/mm³), indicating no acute bacterial process. Antibiotic overuse may disrupt gut flora, impair iron absorption, and contribute to resistant bacterial strains, which is contraindicated in this clinical scenario.
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