A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing benzodiazepine toxicity.
The nurse should plan to administer which of the following medications?
Atropine.
Flumazenil.
Activated charcoal.
Naloxone.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
Flumazenil is a selective antagonist for the benzodiazepine receptor and is used as an antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It competitively inhibits the effects of benzodiazepines by binding to the same receptor sites in the central nervous system. Flumazenil can rapidly reverse the sedative and respiratory-depressant effects of benzodiazepine overdose, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.
Choice A rationale:
Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that is used to treat bradycardia and certain types of heart block. It has no specific antidote effects for benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Activated charcoal is used in the management of certain types of poisonings by adsorbing the toxic substance in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. However, it is not effective for benzodiazepine toxicity, which primarily affects the central nervous system and not the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It has no specific effects on benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
A. Placenta previa: The client's symptoms do not specifically suggest placenta previa, which is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, not back pain.
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation: The client's symptoms and vital signs do not suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is a serious condition characterized by excessive bleeding and clotting throughout the body.
C. Preeclampsia: The presence of uterine contractions, elevated blood pressure, and a potential increase in body temperature can indicate the risk of developing preeclampsia, a condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, often developing after the 20th week of pregnancy.
D. Sepsis: While the client has an elevated temperature, the symptoms provided do not strongly indicate sepsis. Other signs, such as rapid heart rate, low blood pressure, and changes in mental status, are usually associated with sepsis.
E. Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM): The client's report of lower back pain, pinkish vaginal discharge, and uterine contractions can raise concern for the risk of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes, where the amniotic sac ruptures before the onset of labor.
F. Seizures: The client's symptoms and information provided do not indicate a risk of seizures. Seizures can be associated with conditions like preeclampsia but are not directly indicated by the client's current assessment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.Induration after a Mantoux test is a common response and does not necessarily require follow-up care.
B.A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L).
C.Sodium phosphate is commonly used for bowel preparation before procedures like colonoscopy.
D.Correct. An INR of 1.8 for a client on warfarin is below the therapeutic range (usually 2.0- 3.0 for most indications), indicating that the client's blood may not be adequately anticoagulated. This requires follow-up to adjust the warfarin dose.
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