A nurse is assessing a client's ECG strip and notes an irregular heart rate of 98/min with no clear P waves. Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias should the nurse document?
First-degree heart block
Atrial fibrillation
Complete heart block
Ventricular tachycardia
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. First-degree heart block: This rhythm shows a prolonged PR interval but maintains regular P waves before every QRS complex and a consistent rhythm. The presence of P waves and regularity rule out this option.
B. Atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm and absent or indistinct P waves due to disorganized atrial electrical activity. A heart rate of 98/min with no clear P waves fits the criteria for this dysrhythmia.
C. Complete heart block: Complete (third-degree) heart block features a complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity, with P waves and QRS complexes occurring independently. It typically presents with a bradycardic rhythm, not near 98/min.
D. Ventricular tachycardia: Ventricular tachycardia presents with a rapid, regular rhythm and wide QRS complexes. It usually lacks P waves but is typically much faster than 98/min, often ranging from 140 to 200 beats/min.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. BUN 16 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL): This is a normal blood urea nitrogen level and does not indicate dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Elevated BUN may suggest volume depletion, but this value is within the expected range.
B. Urine output 40 mL every hour for 3 hr: A urine output of 30 mL/hr or greater is considered adequate in most adult clients. Therefore, 40 mL/hr is within acceptable limits and does not suggest fluid volume deficit.
C. Hct 42% (37% to 47%): This hematocrit level falls within the normal range and does not indicate hemoconcentration. Elevated hematocrit could signal dehydration, but this value alone does not support that conclusion.
D. Surgical drain output 300 mL during an 8-hr shift: This is a significant amount of fluid loss postoperatively and can contribute to fluid volume deficit. High drain output following surgery, especially spinal procedures, increases the client's risk for hypovolemia and should be closely monitored.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
Explanation
Rationale:
- Elevated blood glucose: A random glucose level of 220 mg/dL is mildly elevated and can be expected during acute illness or stress, especially in clients with diabetes. It should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention in this cardiac context.
- Elevated heart rate: A heart rate of 116/min reflects tachycardia, which may result from pain, anxiety, or reduced cardiac output. While it is an important finding, it is secondary to more urgent issues like chest pain or myocardial injury.
- Epigastric discomfort: Epigastric discomfort alone is not an emergency finding and can occur in non-cardiac conditions such as GERD or peptic ulcer disease. While it may signal atypical angina, it lacks the specificity or urgency of active chest pain.
- Chest pain: Chest pain is a classic symptom of myocardial ischemia and warrants immediate intervention. The nurse should apply oxygen, initiate cardiac monitoring, assess pain characteristics, establish IV access, and prepare to administer nitroglycerin or aspirin per protocol.
- Elevated troponin: A troponin level of 10.15 ng/mL confirms myocardial injury and supports the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The nurse should report this result immediately, anticipate further cardiac workup, continue ECG and vital monitoring, and prepare the client for possible transfer to a higher level of care.
- Elevated blood pressure: A BP of 158/92 mm Hg is elevated but not critical in this context. It is likely a response to pain or anxiety and can be managed after more urgent issues, such as ischemia or infarction, have been addressed.
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