A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who has a fractured femur and is in Buck's traction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Apply a 9 kg 120 lb weight to the traction
Clean the pin insertion sites on a daily basis.
Remove the weights while the client is eating
Ensure that the weights are hanging freely.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Apply a 9 kg (20 lb) weight to the traction: Buck’s traction is designed for short-term immobilization and uses lighter weights, typically between 2 to 5 kg (4.5 to 10 lb). Applying 9 kg (20 lb) would be excessive and could lead to nerve damage, impaired circulation, or additional injury.
B. Clean the pin insertion sites on a daily basis: Buck’s traction is a type of skin traction, not skeletal traction, and does not involve pins inserted into the bone. Therefore, there are no pin sites to clean in Buck’s traction, making this action irrelevant for the client’s care.
C. Remove the weights while the client is eating: Weights should never be removed or lifted unless there is a provider’s specific order to do so. Interrupting the continuous pull of the traction can cause misalignment of the fracture and delay healing.
D. Ensure that the weights are hanging freely: It is essential that the weights in Buck’s traction hang freely without resting on the floor or bed. This ensures a constant, steady pull on the extremity, which helps maintain proper alignment and promotes effective immobilization.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Pain radiating down the left arm: Pain radiating to the left arm is more commonly associated with myocardial infarction (heart attack), not a transient ischemic attack (TIA). It indicates cardiac ischemia rather than a temporary disruption in cerebral blood flow.
B. Seizure activity: Seizures are not characteristic of transient ischemic attacks. While seizures can occur after significant brain injury such as a stroke, TIAs typically present with focal neurological deficits that resolve quickly without leading to seizure activity.
C. Sudden loss of vision in one eye: A sudden, temporary loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax) is a classic sign of a TIA. It reflects temporary ischemia in the retinal or cerebral blood vessels and warrants immediate medical evaluation to prevent a full-blown stroke.
D. Epigastric pain: Epigastric pain is usually related to gastrointestinal issues such as gastritis, ulcers, or gallbladder disease. It is not indicative of a transient ischemic attack and would not typically be prioritized in assessing for neurological compromise.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Acute hemolytic: An acute hemolytic reaction typically presents with symptoms like fever, chills, back pain, hypotension, and hematuria. It is caused by the recipient’s immune system attacking incompatible donor red blood cells, not primarily by urticaria and wheezing.
B. Anaphylactic: An anaphylactic reaction is a severe allergic response to blood transfusion and is characterized by symptoms such as urticaria (hives), wheezing, hypotension, and respiratory distress. It requires immediate intervention, including stopping the transfusion and administering emergency medications.
C. Febrile: A febrile reaction is usually marked by fever, chills, and headache during or shortly after a transfusion. It does not typically involve wheezing or significant allergic skin reactions like urticaria.
D. Circulatory overload: Circulatory overload occurs when too much fluid is administered too quickly, leading to symptoms like dyspnea, cough, and pulmonary edema. While it involves respiratory symptoms, it is not associated with urticaria or allergic reactions.
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