A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who has severe burns.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take when caring for a client who has severe burns? Select all that apply.
Cool the burn with ice water
Administer opioid analgesics.
Administer systemic antibiotics,
Administer benzodiazepines for anxiety management
Lay the head of the bed flat:
Correct Answer : B,D
A. Cool the burn with ice water:
Not recommended: Cooling a burn with ice water directly is not recommended as it can lead to further tissue damage and complications. Instead, the burn should be cooled with cool (not cold) running water for a limited time and then covered with a clean, dry cloth.
B. Administer opioid analgesics:
Recommended: Severe burns can cause excruciating pain, and opioid analgesics are often necessary to manage this pain effectively. However, the specific opioid, dosage, and route of administration should be determined by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and pain level.
C. Administer systemic antibiotics:
Not routinely recommended: Unless there are signs of infection or the burn involves deep tissue damage, systemic antibiotics are not typically administered prophylactically for burn injuries. However, if there are signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage from the burn site, antibiotic therapy may be initiated based on culture and sensitivity results.
D. Administer benzodiazepines for anxiety management:
Considered: Severe burns can cause significant psychological distress and anxiety in patients. Benzodiazepines may be considered to manage acute anxiety and agitation in these situations. However, the decision to administer benzodiazepines should be made based on the client's overall condition, vital signs, and response to non-pharmacological interventions for anxiety.
E. Lay the head of the bed flat:
Not recommended: In a client with severe burns who is experiencing increased work of breathing, anxiety, and rapid breathing, it is generally more beneficial to elevate the head of the bed slightly (semi-Fowler's position) to improve respiratory mechanics and reduce anxiety-related respiratory distress.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Change the dressing when it is saturated:
This intervention is the most appropriate for managing a deep wound with a wet to-damp dressing. Wet to-damp dressings are designed to maintain a moist environment conducive to wound healing. Changing the dressing when it becomes saturated with wound exudate helps prevent excessive moisture accumulation, which can lead to skin maceration and potential infection. It ensures that the wound bed remains in an optimal healing environment and reduces the risk of complications.
B. Assess the wound bed once a day:
Assessing the wound bed is an essential part of wound care, as it allows the nurse to monitor healing progress, assess for signs of infection, and evaluate the effectiveness of the chosen dressing. However, the frequency of wound bed assessment may vary depending on the specific patient's needs and the type of dressing being used. While daily assessment is generally recommended, it does not directly dictate the timing of dressing changes for wet to-damp dressings, which are primarily changed based on saturation levels.
C. Contact the provider when the dressing leaks:
Contacting the provider when the dressing leaks or when there are concerns or complications is an important step in patient care. Leaking dressings can indicate issues with the dressing application, excessive wound exudate, or potential complications such as infection. It's crucial to inform the provider promptly so that appropriate interventions can be implemented, but this instruction is more reactive and does not specifically address the timing of dressing changes.
D. Change the dressing every 6 hours:
Changing the dressing every 6 hours is not typically recommended for wet to-damp dressings unless specifically indicated based on the patient's condition and the amount of wound exudate. Frequent dressing changes can disrupt the healing process, cause unnecessary trauma to the wound bed, and increase the risk of infection. Dressing change frequency should be based on the assessment of wound exudate and the dressing's ability to maintain a moist environment.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion and release. Aldosterone plays a key role in potassium regulation in the body by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia may include muscle weakness, cramping, irregular heartbeat, and fatigue.
B. Urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours:
This option does not directly relate to complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. A urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours indicates adequate urine production, which is generally a positive sign. However, in the context of inhibiting aldosterone secretion, the nurse would be more concerned about decreased urine output due to potential renal effects.
C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg):
Blood osmolality within the normal range (usually around 275-295 mOsm/kg) is not directly associated with complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Blood osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood and is regulated by various factors, including water balance, electrolyte levels, and hormonal regulation. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion primarily affects electrolyte balance rather than blood osmolality.
D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr:
A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered low and may indicate decreased renal perfusion or impaired kidney function. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion can affect renal function and urine output, leading to decreased urine production. Reduced urine output can contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances and may be a concern in patients with inhibited aldosterone secretion.
E. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:
A serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is another potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hyperkalemia. Symptoms of hyperkalemia may include muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, nausea, and numbness or tingling.
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