A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Terbutaline
Methylergonovine
Magnesium sulfate
Nifedipine
The Correct Answer is B
b. Methylergonovine.
Explanation:
Postpartum hemorrhage is a significant complication that can occur after childbirth. Methylergonovine is a medication commonly used to manage postpartum hemorrhage. It is an ergot alkaloid that helps to contract the uterus, reducing bleeding. It is typically administered either intramuscularly or orally.
Option a, Terbutaline, is a medication used for the management of preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscles. It is not indicated for postpartum hemorrhage.
Option c, Magnesium sulfate, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of seizures in patients with preeclampsia or eclampsia. It is not specifically indicated for postpartum hemorrhage.
Option d, Nifedipine, is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to manage hypertension. It is not indicated for postpartum hemorrhage.
It's important to note that the specific management of postpartum hemorrhage may vary depending on the underlying cause, severity of bleeding, and individual patient factors. The healthcare provider will determine the most appropriate interventions and medications for each case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A:
An absent dorsal pedal pulse would indicate a vascular problem such as arterial occlusion, not a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). In the case of DVT, blood flow in the veins is obstructed, but the arterial pulse, which is related to arterial circulation, should remain intact unless there is a separate arterial issue. Therefore, absent pulses are not characteristic of DVT.
Choice B:
Shiny, hairless skin is a sign typically associated with chronic arterial insufficiency, not DVT. This skin change occurs when there is poor arterial blood flow, which leads to a lack of nourishment for the skin, causing it to become thin and shiny. In contrast, DVT affects the veins and does not usually cause these skin changes in the acute phase.
Choice C:
Irregular, bulging veins are indicative of varicose veins or chronic venous insufficiency, not a DVT. Varicose veins occur when the veins become swollen and twisted due to weak or damaged valves. DVT, on the other hand, involves the formation of a clot in the deep veins and does not typically cause the veins to bulge visibly, especially in the early stages.
Choice D:
Dull, aching pain is a common symptom associated with deep vein thrombosis. This pain typically occurs in the affected extremity and is often described as a constant, aching sensation. The pain can worsen with movement or standing and is due to the inflammation and obstruction caused by the blood clot in the deep veins. This is a hallmark sign of DVT, along with swelling and redness in the affected limb.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The statement by the client that indicates an understanding of the teaching is "I plan to take water aerobics classes at the gym near my house." Exercise is an important part of managing osteoarthritis, and water aerobics is a low-impact exercise that can help improve joint mobility and reduce pain.
Option ais incorrect because applying cold compresses may not be the most effective way to manage pain associated with osteoarthritis. Heat therapy is often more effective for this condition.
Option b is incorrect because limiting purine intake in the diet is recommended for clients with gout, not osteoarthritis.
Option d is incorrect because ibuprofen can be an effective pain reliever for clients with osteoarthritis.
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