A nurse is assisting in the plan of care for a client who has a suspected myocardial infarction. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer first?
Morphine
Nitroglycerin
Aspirin
Oxygen
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason : Morphine is an opioid analgesic used to relieve severe pain and can be administered to patients with myocardial infarction to alleviate chest pain and anxiety. However, it is not the first medication given as it does not address the underlying cause of the myocardial infarction, which is the formation of a blood clot in the coronary arteries.
Choice B reason : Nitroglycerin is a nitrate that helps to dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow. It can be used to relieve chest pain in myocardial infarction, but similar to morphine, it is not the initial medication of choice. The priority is to prevent further blood clotting.
Choice C reason : Administered as soon as possible to inhibit platelet aggregation and reduce clot progression.
Choice D reason : When a myocardial infarction (MI) is suspected, the priority is to address tissue hypoxia and ensure adequate oxygenation to minimize myocardial damage. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen availability to the ischemic heart tissue, reducing further damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : S1 represents the sound made by the closure of the atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid valves) and is not the sound associated with the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.
Choice B reason : S2 is the sound heard when the aortic and pulmonic valves close. It is often described as a "dub" and occurs at the end of ventricular systole.
Choice C reason : S3 is a rare extra heart sound that follows S2 and usually indicates an increase in left ventricular filling pressure, which can be found in conditions such as heart failure.
Choice D reason : S4 is another extra heart sound that occurs just before S1. It is typically associated with a stiff or hypertrophic ventricle and is not related to the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Scheduling the next appointment for 1 year from now is a standard practice for patients who are considered to be in good health and have no immediate medical concerns. Given the patient's normal BP and BMI, along with no reported medical problems, this would typically be an appropriate action. However, it is essential to consider the patient's age and race, as African American men are at a higher risk for certain conditions, such as prostate cancer, which may warrant more frequent monitoring.
Choice B reason: While providing information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity is generally beneficial, it may not be necessary for this patient. His BMI is 24, which falls within the normal range (18.5-24.9), indicating that he is not overweight. Therefore, unless the patient expresses a desire to lose weight or improve fitness, this action might not be a priority.
Choice C reason:Offering information on reducing risk factors for hypertension is always a positive step in preventive healthcare. However, the patient's BP is 126 mm Hg, which is considered a normal reading (normal BP range is 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg). Therefore, while education on maintaining a healthy lifestyle is valuable, it may not be the most critical action for this visit.
Choice D reason:Scheduling a PSA test is recommended for African American men starting at age 45 due to their increased risk of prostate cancer. The PSA test measures the level of prostate-specific antigen in the blood, which can be an indicator of prostate cancer. Given the patient's demographic, this proactive screening measure is advisable, despite the absence of symptoms or previous medical problems.
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