A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider prescribing to decrease ICP?

Nicardipine

Phenytoin

Dopamine

Mannitol

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to manage blood pressure but does not directly reduce ICP.
B. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures, which may occur after a hemorrhage, but it does not address increased ICP.
C. Dopamine is used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output but does not play a role in reducing ICP.
D. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps decrease ICP by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, thus relieving pressure within the skull. It is the most appropriate intervention for managing increased ICP.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A cooling blanket is not typically needed unless there is a fever or postoperative temperature dysregulation, which is not a standard intervention in this case.
B. Monitoring daily weight is essential following valve replacement to detect fluid retention or heart failure, which can indicate compromised cardiac function.
C. Opioid medications may be necessary, but they should be prescribed according to the client’s pain needs rather than a routine intervention.
D. PTT levels are usually monitored for clients on anticoagulants, but since the client has a biologic valve, anticoagulation therapy is not always required as with mechanical valves.

A. Right groin area B. Left Groin area C. Right ankle D. Left ankle

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The right groin area is not the site of the procedure, so placing a sandbag here would not help control bleeding or pressure.
B. The sandbag should be placed over the left groin area where the femoral artery was accessed during the angiography. This helps apply pressure to prevent bleeding from the site and promote clot formation.
C. The right ankle is irrelevant to the procedure and would not require pressure.
D. Similarly, the left ankle has no relation to the femoral angiography site.

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A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider prescribing to decrease ICP?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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