A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is pregnant.
Nurses' Notes.
0900: Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen.
Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a. gravida 3, para 2 with one preterm birth.
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record.
Select 4 findings that the nurse should identify as a potential prenatal complication
Blood pressure.
Respiratory rate.
Gravida/parity.
Fetal activity.
Headache.
Urine ketones.
Urine protein.
Correct Answer : A,D,E,G
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The administration of Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is typically indicated for Rh-negative mothers who are carrying Rh-positive fetuses to prevent sensitization to Rh antigens. It is not directly related to the amniocentesis procedure. Therefore, this information is not necessary for the client undergoing an amniocentesis.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Having an empty bladder is crucial during an amniocentesis procedure because a full bladder can obscure visualization of the fetus and the needle placement. It is essential for a successful and safe procedure. The nurse should instruct the client to empty their bladder before the test.
Choice C rationale:
The position during an amniocentesis is typically dorsal recumbent or semi-Fowler's position to allow for proper visualization of the fetus and needle placement. Lying on the left side is not a standard position for this procedure, so this information is incorrect and not necessary for the client.
Choice D rationale:
Drinking 50 grams of oral glucose is not a requirement for an amniocentesis procedure. This information is unrelated to the amniocentesis and can be confusing for the client. Therefore, it is not necessary to include this in the instructions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ice cream. Ice cream is not typically recommended for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) as it contains dairy, which can exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms in some people with lactose intolerance or dairy sensitivity. It may also be high in sugar, which can worsen IBS symptoms for some individuals.
Choice B rationale:
Honey. Honey is generally well-tolerated by individuals with IBS and can be used as a natural sweetener in moderation. However, it is not specifically recommended as a dietary inclusion for managing IBS symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Watermelon. Watermelon is a low-fiber fruit that may be well-tolerated by some individuals with IBS, especially during periods of symptom flare-ups. However, it does not provide the beneficial probiotics and digestive enzymes found in yogurt, which can be helpful for some IBS patients.
Choice D rationale:
Yogurt. Yogurt, especially varieties containing live probiotic cultures, can be beneficial for individuals with IBS. Probiotics may help improve gut health and alleviate some gastrointestinal symptoms associated with IBS. It is often recommended as a dietary inclusion for those with IBS.
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