A nurse is assisting with the care of a preschooler who is postoperative following tetralogy of Fallot correction. Which of the following manifestations indicates the child is possibly experiencing decreased cardiac output?
Extremities warm to touch.
Capillary refill 2 seconds.
Blood pressure 112/66 mm Hg.
Diminished pulses.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Extremities warm to the touch. This manifestation is not indicative of decreased cardiac output. Warm extremities suggest adequate peripheral perfusion and circulation. In a child with decreased cardiac output, the body might attempt to shunt blood away from the extremities to prioritize vital organs, leading to cooler extremities.
Choice B rationale:
Capillary refill 2 seconds. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is within the normal range for a preschool-aged child. This quick capillary refill suggests adequate circulation and is not a sign of decreased cardiac output. Prolonged capillary refill time might be indicative of poor peripheral perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
Blood pressure 112/66 mm Hg. While a blood pressure of 112/66 mm Hg might be within the normal range for a preschooler, it is not the most reliable indicator of decreased cardiac output. Blood pressure can be influenced by various factors, and a seemingly normal blood pressure does not rule out decreased cardiac output if other manifestations are present.
Choice D rationale:
Diminished pulses. This is the correct choice. Diminished or weak pulses are indicative of decreased cardiac output. Inadequate blood volume being pumped by the heart can lead to reduced peripheral perfusion, resulting in diminished pulses. This sign is important in assessing the child's cardiovascular status postoperatively, especially after a corrective procedure for tetralogy of Fallot.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin rash characterized by raised, red, and itchy welts that can vary in size and shape. It is a classic manifestation of an allergic reaction. Allergic reactions can occur in response to medications like clindamycin. Urticaria is a result of histamine release and can range from mild to severe, with itching being a prominent symptom. The appearance of urticaria in a child taking clindamycin suggests a potential allergic reaction to the medication.
Choice B rationale:
Conjunctivitis, or pink eye, is inflammation of the conjunctiva, the clear membrane that covers the white part of the eye and lines the inner surface of the eyelids. While conjunctivitis can be associated with allergies, it is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to clindamycin. Conjunctivitis is more commonly associated with eye irritation, redness, and discharge.
Choice C rationale:
A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) alone is not a definitive sign of an allergic reaction to medication. Fever can be caused by a variety of factors, including infections, inflammatory processes, and other non-allergic reactions. While fever can be a symptom of an allergic reaction in some cases, it is not as specific as urticaria in indicating an allergic response.
Choice D rationale:
Cool extremities are not a classic sign of an allergic reaction to medication. Allergic reactions typically involve skin manifestations like hives, itching, and redness. Cool extremities might suggest poor peripheral circulation or decreased blood flow to the extremities, but they are not directly indicative of an allergic reaction to clindamycin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Contact precautions are indicated when the client has a condition that can be easily transmitted through direct contact with the client or their environment. Measles, which is an airborne disease, requires more stringent precautions due to its mode of transmission.
Choice B rationale:
The correct choice. Measles is spread through airborne particles, making airborne precautions necessary. These precautions include placing the client in a negative pressure room, wearing appropriate respiratory protection (e.g., N95 mask), and ensuring that healthcare providers are properly protected from inhaling infectious particles.
Choice C rationale:
A protective environment is a specialized form of isolation used for clients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing stem cell transplants. It involves maintaining a sterile environment to prevent the introduction of pathogens. This level of precautions is not applicable to clients with measles.
Choice D rationale:
Droplet precautions are appropriate for diseases that are transmitted through respiratory droplets generated by coughing, sneezing, or talking. Measles, however, is transmitted through smaller airborne particles that can remain suspended in the air for longer periods, making airborne precautions the most suitable choice.
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