A nurse is caring for a 24-year-old female client in the post-operative unit following a horseback riding accident.
Oxygen saturation of 100% on 40% oxygen
Capillary refill time of 6 seconds
Blood pressure of 90/79 mmHg with a pulse pressure of less than 40 mmHg
The client’s lack of urine output from the indwelling catheter
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Choice B rationale: Capillary refill time of 6 seconds is significantly delayed and indicates poor peripheral perfusion. This finding suggests that the client may be experiencing decreased cardiac output or hypovolemia, which requires immediate attention to improve circulation and oxygen delivery to tissues.
Choice C rationale: Blood pressure of 90/79 mmHg with a pulse pressure of less than 40 mmHg is a critical finding. The narrow pulse pressure and hypotension indicate potential hypovolemia or shock, which must be addressed urgently to stabilize the client's hemodynamic status.
Choice D rationale: The client’s lack of urine output from the indwelling catheter is concerning and indicates potential kidney dysfunction or decreased renal perfusion. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess and manage potential underlying causes, such as hypovolemia or renal injury.
Choice A rationale: Oxygen saturation of 100% on 40% oxygen is not an immediate concern. While it is important to continue monitoring oxygen levels, the client is currently receiving adequate oxygenation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A client with a positive Mantoux test and sputum cultures positive for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) requires a negative airflow room and airborne precautions. This is to prevent the spread of tuberculosis (TB), an infectious disease that can be transmitted through airborne particles. The use of a particulate respirator mask by healthcare personnel is essential in protecting themselves from inhaling infectious aerosols. Implementing these precautions is critical in controlling the spread of TB within healthcare settings and ensuring patient and staff safety.
Choice B rationale
A client with genital herpes simplex II lesions does not require a negative airflow room or airborne precautions. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected lesions or body fluids. Standard precautions, including contact precautions when dealing with lesions, are adequate to prevent the spread of HSV. Negative airflow rooms and airborne precautions are not necessary for managing this condition.
Choice C rationale
Scarlet fever, complicated with pneumonia, primarily requires standard and droplet precautions rather than airborne precautions. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus, which is spread through respiratory droplets. While pneumonia can increase the severity of the infection, negative airflow rooms and particulate respirators are not typically required. Droplet precautions, such as wearing masks and maintaining distance, are sufficient to prevent transmission.
Choice D rationale
Scabies is a parasitic infestation that spreads through direct skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated items such as bedding and clothing. Negative airflow rooms and airborne precautions are not necessary for managing scabies. Standard and contact precautions, including wearing gloves and gowns and thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting contaminated items, are adequate to prevent the spread of the mites causing scabies. The use of a particulate respirator mask is not required.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Acute appendicitis is most likely based on the history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain localized to the right lower quadrant, nausea, vomiting with green bile, and tenderness on physical examination. The ultrasound findings of right lower quadrant tenderness further support this diagnosis. The client's vital signs, including tachycardia and tachypnea, are consistent with the stress and pain caused by acute appendicitis.
Choice B rationale: Ectopic pregnancy is less likely as the client has a negative pregnancy test and reports regular menstrual cycles with her last period occurring one week ago. Additionally, her symptoms are more typical of appendicitis.
Choice C rationale: Ovarian cyst rupture would typically present with sudden onset of pelvic pain, often associated with menstrual irregularities or a history of ovarian cysts. However, the client's presentation and diagnostic results strongly point towards acute appendicitis.
Choice D rationale: Acute gastritis generally presents with epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. However, the localization of pain to the right lower quadrant and the ultrasound findings make appendicitis a more likely diagnosis in this case.
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