A nurse is caring for a 34-year-old female client who is at 34 weeks of gestation in the antepartum unit.
What is the most appropriate action the nurse should take next?
Administer Rh immunoglobulin (Rho(D) immune globulin)
Perform a continuous fetal heart rate monitoring
Prepare for emergent delivery
Administer a corticosteroid to enhance fetal lung maturity
The Correct Answer is D
A. Administer Rh immunoglobulin (Rho(D) immune globulin): This is important if the mother is Rh-negative, but there is no indication of Rh incompatibility in this scenario.
B. Perform continuous fetal heart rate monitoring: This is essential for ongoing assessment of fetal well-being but may not be the very first immediate action.
C. Prepare for emergent delivery: This would only be necessary if there were signs of fetal or maternal distress, which are not currently indicated.
D. Administer a corticosteroid to enhance fetal lung maturity: Administering corticosteroids like betamethasone or dexamethasone is crucial between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation to enhance lung maturity and reduce the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Proteinuria and vomiting at 35 weeks gestation are significant symptoms that could indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition that requires immediate assessment and management to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Choice B rationale
Urinary urgency, frequency, and burning at 39 weeks gestation suggest a possible urinary tract infection (UTI), which is concerning but generally not as immediately critical as symptoms suggesting preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
A fasting blood sugar of 95 mg/dL and a 3-hour glucose of 120 at 30 weeks gestation indicate good control of blood sugar levels, which is not as high-risk as preeclampsia symptoms.
Choice D rationale
A hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL and a potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L at 34 weeks gestation are within normal ranges and do not indicate an immediate high-risk condition compared to the potential for preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
- Blood pressure 160/105 mm Hg: This is abnormal as it is significantly elevated, which is a key indicator of preeclampsia.
- Reflexes 3+: This is abnormal and indicates hyperreflexia, often seen in preeclampsia.
- Platelet count 140,000/mm³: This is abnormal since it is on the lower end, suggesting mild thrombocytopenia, common in preeclampsia.
- Temperature 37.2°C: This is normal for a pregnant individual.
- Oxygen saturation 97%: This is normal, indicating adequate oxygenation.
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