A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 2 hours ago. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What should be the nurse’s first action?
Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
Administer oxytocin infusion.
Obtain a type and crossmatch.
Initiate oxygen therapy by nonrebreather mask.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
If a nurse notes that a client’s blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg two hours after giving birth, the first action should be to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because a soft or “boggy” uterus could indicate uterine atony, a condition where the uterus fails to contract after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding and a drop in blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
Administering oxytocin infusion can help stimulate uterine contractions and control postpartum bleeding. However, it is not the first action to take. The nurse should first assess the firmness of the uterus.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a type and crossmatch is important if a blood transfusion is required. However, this is not the first action. The nurse should first assess the firmness of the uterus.
Choice D rationale
Initiating oxygen therapy can help ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues, but it is not the first action. The nurse should first assess the firmness of the uterus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Chorioamnionitis. Based on the information provided, the patient is at risk of developing chorioamnionitis, which is an infection of the membranes surrounding the fetus.
Choice B rationale
Preeclampsia. There is no information provided that would indicate the patient is at risk of developing preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Gestational diabetes. There is no information provided that would indicate the patient is at risk of developing gestational diabetes.
Choice D rationale
Preterm labor. There is no information provided that would indicate the patient is at risk of developing preterm labor.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet is not what is indicated by the presenting part being at 0 station. This would be more indicative of a positive station, such as
+31.
Choice B rationale
The position of the fetal head, such as left occiput posterior, is not determined by the station of the presenting part. The station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the mother’s ischial spines.
Choice C rationale
The palpability of the posterior fontanel is not related to the station of the presenting part. The fontanels are soft spots on the baby’s head which allow for compression during birth and brain growth after birth.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. The presenting part is at 0 station when its lowermost portion is at the level of an imaginary line drawn between the client’s ischial spines.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
