A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 2 hours ago. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What should be the nurse’s first action?
Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
Administer oxytocin infusion.
Obtain a type and crossmatch.
Initiate oxygen therapy by nonrebreather mask.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
If a nurse notes that a client’s blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg two hours after giving birth, the first action should be to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because a soft or “boggy” uterus could indicate uterine atony, a condition where the uterus fails to contract after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding and a drop in blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
Administering oxytocin infusion can help stimulate uterine contractions and control postpartum bleeding. However, it is not the first action to take. The nurse should first assess the firmness of the uterus.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a type and crossmatch is important if a blood transfusion is required. However, this is not the first action. The nurse should first assess the firmness of the uterus.
Choice D rationale
Initiating oxygen therapy can help ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues, but it is not the first action. The nurse should first assess the firmness of the uterus.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth may be necessary in some cases of preeclampsia, particularly if there are signs of fetal distress or if the condition is not responding to treatment. However, in this scenario, the client’s symptoms are indicative of magnesium toxicity, not worsening preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Positioning the client in Trendelenburg (with the head lower than the feet) is not typically used in the management of preeclampsia or magnesium toxicity.
Choice C rationale
Discontinuing the medication infusion is the correct action in this scenario. The client’s symptoms (respiratory rate of 10/min and absent deep-tendon reflexes) are indicative of magnesium toxicity, a potential complication of magnesium sulfate therapy. Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, but it can cause toxicity if the levels become too high. If signs of toxicity occur, the infusion should be discontinued immediately.
Choice D rationale
Assessing maternal blood glucose may be necessary in some cases, particularly if the client has a history of diabetes. However, it is not the priority in this scenario, as the client’s symptoms are indicative of magnesium toxicity, not hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Projectile vomiting after feedings is a classic symptom of pyloric stenosis. This occurs because the enlarged pyloric muscle obstructs the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine.
Choice B rationale
Absent bowel sounds are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. While this condition affects the gastrointestinal tract, it does not typically cause a complete absence of bowel sounds.
Choice C rationale
Increased sodium levels are not a typical finding in a newborn with pyloric stenosis. In fact, these infants may have low sodium levels due to vomiting.
Choice D rationale
A golf ball-sized mass over the left quadrant is not a typical finding in a newborn with pyloric stenosis. The classic physical examination finding in pyloric stenosis is a palpable “olive-like” mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
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