A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is 3 weeks postpartum following the birth of a healthy newborn. The client reports feeling "down” and sad, having no energy, and wanting to cry.
Which of the following is a priority action by the nurse?
Assist the family to identify prior use of positive coping skills in family crises.
Ask the client if she has considered harming her newborn.
Anticipate a prescription by the provider for an antidepressant.
Reinforce postpartum and newborn care discharge teaching.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Assisting the family in identifying prior coping skills is a valuable nursing intervention, but it is not the priority action in this situation. The client's feelings of sadness and lack of energy raise concerns about postpartum depression, and the nurse should address potential harm to the newborn first.
Choice B rationale:
This is the priority action by the nurse. The client's symptoms are indicative of postpartum depression, and the nurse must assess if she has considered harming her newborn. This assessment is crucial for the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice C rationale:
Anticipating a prescription for an antidepressant may be appropriate once a proper assessment and diagnosis are made, but it is not the priority action at this stage. Assessing for potential harm to the newborn takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing postpartum and newborn care discharge teaching is essential for the client's well- being. However, it is not the priority action when the client is showing signs of postpartum depression and possible harm to the newborn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion if the client's contraction frequency is every 3 minutes. Frequent contractions may lead to uterine hyperstimulation, which can reduce fetal blood flow and oxygenation, potentially causing fetal distress. Normal contraction frequency during labor is typically every 2 to 5 minutes.
Choice B rationale:
Contraction duration of 100 seconds is not an indication to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The duration of contractions can vary during labor, and 100 seconds is within the normal range of contraction duration, which is usually 45 to 90 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate with moderate variability is not an indication to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. Moderate variability in fetal heart rate is a reassuring sign, indicating a healthy fetal response to labor. It shows that the fetus is tolerating the contractions well and is not experiencing fetal distress.
Choice D rationale:
A fetal heart rate of 118/min is not an indication to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The normal fetal heart rate range is typically between 110 to 160 beats per minute, and a heart rate of 118/min falls within this normal range. However, if the fetal heart rate deviates significantly from the normal range or shows signs of distress, further assessment and intervention are required.
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