A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the client to take deep breaths during the test is not appropriate for a thoracentesis. This procedure involves the insertion of a needle into the pleural space to drain fluid or air, and taking deep breaths could interfere with the accuracy and safety of the procedure.
Choice B rationale:
Assisting the client to a prone position prior to the test is also incorrect. During a thoracentesis, the client is usually seated upright or in a slightly forward-leaning position to allow better access to the pleural space and improve breathing.
Choice C rationale:
Informing the client that the new onset of a cough is expected following the test is not accurate. While a cough can be a possible side effect, it is not a common or expected outcome of a thoracentesis.
Choice D rationale:
Applying pressure to the client's puncture site after the test is complete is the correct action. This helps to prevent bleeding and reduce the risk of pneumothorax (collapsed lung) by promoting clot formation at the site of the needle insertion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated WBC count (11,000/mm²) in a client starting treatment for MRSA infection may indicate an inflammatory response, but it is expected in this scenario, and the priority is not as high as other critical lab values.
Choice B rationale:
A serum pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a common complication that can lead to metabolic acidosis. This lab result is a priority as it requires immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
Hematocrit of 26% in a client with sickle cell disease might be low, but it is not the priority over the critically abnormal lab value of serum pH in option B.
Choice D rationale:
A urine specific gravity of 1.032 in a client diagnosed with dehydration is elevated, indicating concentrated urine due to dehydration. While dehydration is concerning, it is not as high-priority as the potentially life-threatening acidosis in option B.
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