A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position to promote comfort and reduce the risk of complications related to appendicitis. This position helps to decrease pressure on the abdomen and may alleviate pain by reducing tension on the abdominal muscles.
Choice B rationale:
Administering an enema 1 hour prior to surgery is not indicated for a client with appendicitis. Enemas are generally not recommended for clients with suspected or confirmed appendicitis as they can potentially worsen inflammation and cause perforation of the inflamed appendix.
Choice C rationale:
Applying a warm pack to the client's lower abdomen is contraindicated in appendicitis. Heat can exacerbate inflammation and should be avoided in such cases.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client on a clear liquid diet is not appropriate for appendicitis. Clients with appendicitis are typically NPO (nothing by mouth) to avoid stimulating the gastrointestinal tract and reduce the risk of rupture if surgery is needed.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Placing the client in a low Fowler's position with the knees bent (Choice A) can help reduce tension on the abdominal incision, but it is not the priority when evisceration is present. The focus should be on immediate intervention and preparation for surgery.
Choice B rationale:
Covering the client's wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing (Choice B) is essential to prevent further contamination and maintain moisture in the exposed tissue. This step helps protect the wound until the client can be taken to the operating room.
Choice C rationale:
Notifying the surgeon about the finding (Choice C) is important, but it should not be done before taking more immediate action. Evisceration requires prompt intervention and transfer to surgery, and the surgeon will be involved once the client is ready for the operation.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing the client for transfer to surgery (Choice D) is the correct sequence of steps in this situation. Evisceration is a surgical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications and infection. The nurse should stabilize the wound with a sterile dressing and then prepare the client for surgery promptly.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today