A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increasing the intake of high-fiber foods is not relevant to addressing the client's dry mouth caused by benztropine. High-fiber foods are commonly recommended for managing constipation, a symptom often associated with Parkinson's disease, but it does not address the issue of dry mouth.
Choice B rationale:
Chewing sugarless gum can stimulate saliva production and help alleviate dry mouth. However, it is not the most appropriate recommendation for a client taking benztropine, as gum-chewing may interfere with the effectiveness of the medication or exacerbate other symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Moistening the mouth with lemon-glycerin swabs is the most suitable recommendation for a client experiencing dry mouth due to benztropine. Lemon-glycerin swabs can help increase saliva production and provide relief from the discomfort of dry mouth without interfering with the medication's efficacy.
Choice D rationale:
Rinsing the mouth with nystatin is used to treat fungal infections in the mouth (oral thrush) and is not relevant to address the side effect of dry mouth caused by benztropine.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
(Fluticasone) Fluticasone is a corticosteroid inhaler used for the long-term management of asthma symptoms and prevention of asthma attacks. It is not suitable for treating acute asthma
attacks. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for medications to treat an acute asthma attack.
Choice B rationale:
(Albuterol) Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator and the preferred medication for relieving acute asthma symptoms and treating asthma attacks. It works by quickly relaxing the airway muscles, making it easier to breathe during an asthma attack. Therefore, this is the correct choice for medications to treat an acute asthma attack.
Choice C rationale:
(Salmeterol) Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator used for the prevention of asthma symptoms but should not be used for treating acute asthma attacks. It has a slower onset of action compared to short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for medications to treat an acute asthma attack.
Choice D rationale:
(Beclomethasone) Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid inhaler used for long-term asthma management and prevention of asthma symptoms but is not appropriate for treating acute asthma attacks. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for medications to treat an acute asthma attack.
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