A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and a prescription for heparin. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?
INR 0.8, aPTT 85 seconds.
INR 2, aPTT 60 seconds.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Placing the client on droplet precautions is appropriate for bacterial meningitis, as it is spread through respiratory droplets. This measure helps prevent the spread of infection to others.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should clarify the prescription to perform a cranial nerve assessment every 2 hours. While cranial nerve assessment is crucial in monitoring neurological status, performing it every 2 hours is excessive and not supported by evidence-based practice. Frequent assessments can be uncomfortable for the client and may not provide additional meaningful information within such a short interval.
Choice C rationale:
Assisting the client out of bed three times per day is essential for promoting mobility and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers and muscle weakness. This prescription is appropriate and does not require clarification.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the client's weight daily is essential in monitoring fluid balance and nutritional status. There is no need to clarify this prescription, as it is a standard practice in caring for clients with bacterial meningitis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should maintain the affected leg elevated on several pillows to reduce swelling and promote venous return. Elevating the leg helps minimize edema, which can be beneficial for the healing process and overall comfort of the client.
Choice B rationale:
Instructing the client to wiggle the toes once every 4 hours is not necessary and may cause discomfort to the fractured tibia. Toe wiggling does not provide any significant benefit in this context and could potentially disrupt the healing process.
Choice C rationale:
Using a hair dryer to promote drying of the cast is not recommended. Applying heat to the fiberglass cast may alter its integrity and lead to uneven drying, potentially weakening the cast's support.
Choice D rationale:
Applying heat to the client's cast for pain relief is not advisable. Heat may also weaken the cast material and is unlikely to provide effective pain relief for a fractured tibia. Instead, the nurse should follow the prescribed pain management plan and use appropriate pain medications as ordered by the healthcare provider.
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