A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute kidney failure after a surgical procedure. Telemetry monitoring shows a widened QRS, frequent premature ventricular contractions, and a heart rate of 55/min. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse identify?
Hyperkalemia.
Hypocalcemia.
Hyperglycemia.
Hypophosphatemia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The combination of widened QRS, frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), and bradycardia (heart rate of 55/min) on telemetry monitoring suggests hyperkalemia. Elevated potassium levels in the blood can cause delayed repolarization of cardiac cells, leading to widened QRS complexes and PVCs. Bradycardia is another common manifestation of hyperkalemia.
Choice B rationale:
Hypocalcemia, characterized by low calcium levels in the blood, can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, but it typically presents with a prolonged QT interval rather than widened QRS complexes and PVCs.
Choice C rationale:
Hyperglycemia, which is high blood glucose levels, does not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG) parameters like QRS width or heart rate. It may have systemic effects, but it is not responsible for the ECG changes described in the scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Hypophosphatemia, or low levels of phosphate in the blood, can cause muscle weakness and may have systemic effects, but it is not associated with the specific ECG changes seen in hyperkalemia, such as widened QRS complexes and PVCs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While wearing a protective gown is essential to minimize exposure to bodily fluids and to ensure the nurse's protection, it is not specifically aimed at decreasing the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). The key interventions to prevent VAP focus on maintaining airway hygiene and proper positioning, not just personal protective equipment during suctioning.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring oral secretions every 2 hours is an important strategy in reducing the risk of VAP. Accumulation of secretions in the mouth and upper airway can promote bacterial growth, increasing the risk of aspiration and infection. By regularly assessing and removing secretions, the nurse can reduce the chances of bacteria being aspirated into the lungs and causing pneumonia.
Choice C rationale:
Oral care every 2 hours is a critical intervention to reduce the risk of VAP. Mechanical ventilation predisposes clients to the growth of bacteria in the oral cavity, and poor oral hygiene increases the risk of oral bacteria being aspirated into the lungs. Regular oral care, including brushing teeth, gums, and the tongue, as well as using antiseptic solutions, helps reduce the microbial load in the mouth and decreases the risk of VAP.
Choice D rationale:
Maintaining a client in a supine position is not recommended for preventing VAP. The best practice is to maintain the head of the bed elevated at a 30-45 degree angle (semi-Fowler's position) to reduce the risk of aspiration. A supine position increases the likelihood of gastric contents or secretions being aspirated into the lungs, which can lead to VAP.
Choice E rationale:
Assessing the client daily for readiness for extubation is an essential practice in preventing VAP. The longer a patient remains intubated, the higher the risk of developing VAP due to prolonged exposure of the endotracheal tube in the airway. Regular assessment for extubation helps to ensure that the client is appropriately weaned off the ventilator as soon as they are stable, reducing the risk of VAP and other complications associated with prolonged ventilation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A decrease in NG tube drainage indicates that the client's stomach contents are not being aspirated excessively, which suggests that the IV fluids are effectively maintaining fluid volume balance. This finding is positive because it shows that the client is retaining the fluids they need, and it may also indicate improved gastrointestinal function and decreased risk of dehydration.
Choice B rationale:
The potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L (milliequivalents per liter) is low. The normal range for potassium is typically between 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Hypokalemia (low potassium) can result from various factors and may cause muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and other complications. It is not a finding that indicates the effectiveness of fluid volume balance therapy.
Choice C rationale:
An increased heart rate may suggest that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit or other physiological stress. It is not a finding that indicates the effectiveness of fluid volume balance therapy.
Choice D rationale:
A hematocrit level of 46% is within the normal range for adult males (typically around 38.8% to 50%) and indicates the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. While it can provide information about blood viscosity and hydration status, it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of fluid volume balance therapy.
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