A nurse is caring for a client who has a fractured arm in a cast. Which of the following findings about the affected arm should the nurse report to the provider?
Active movement is present
Pain is 4 on scale of 0 to 10
Capillary refit is less than 2 seconds
Skin is cool to the touch
The Correct Answer is D
A. Active movement is present: The presence of active movement in the fingers and toes of the affected arm indicates that nerve and muscle function are intact, which is a positive finding. It indicates there is no impairment in function of the affected arm.
B. Pain is 4 on scale of 0 to 10: A pain level of 4 is moderate pain and might be expected after a fracture. As long as pain is being managed appropriately with prescribed medications and no other concerning symptoms are present, it does not necessarily require immediate reporting.
C. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds: A capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is normal. This suggests good blood flow to the affected arm and is not an issue that needs reporting.
D. Skin is cool to the touch: A cool skin temperature on the affected arm could indicate impaired circulation, possibly due to swelling or tightness of the cast, which could lead to compartment syndrome—a serious condition that requires immediate intervention. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider immediately.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Oxygen saturation 95%: An oxygen saturation of 95% is within normal limits for most clients and does not indicate respiratory compromise. No immediate provider notification is necessary based solely on this oxygen saturation level during opioid therapy.
B. Respiratory rate 14/min: A respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute is normal. Significant respiratory depression from opioids like hydromorphone would typically be indicated by a rate lower than 12 breaths per minute.
C. Urinary output 160 mL/8 hr: Urinary output should be at least 30 mL/hr. A total of 160 mL in 8 hours is significantly low, suggesting possible urinary retention or decreased renal perfusion, both of which can be side effects of opioid use and should be reported promptly.
D. Blood pressure 108/58 mm Hg: While this blood pressure is on the lower side, it is not critically low for many adults. Unless the client is symptomatic with dizziness or fainting, this blood pressure alone does not require immediate provider notification.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
- Seizures: The client’s symptoms of severe hypertension, persistent headache, hyperreflexia, proteinuria, and low platelet count strongly indicate severe preeclampsia, a condition that can rapidly progress to eclampsia, where seizures occur. This is a critical obstetric emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity.
- Hypoglycemia: The client’s blood glucose level is 85 mg/dL, which is within the normal range. There are no signs such as diaphoresis, confusion, or weakness that would suggest hypoglycemia, and this condition is unrelated to the client's primary diagnosis of severe preeclampsia.
- Cervical insufficiency: Cervical insufficiency typically causes painless cervical dilation and is associated with second-trimester pregnancy losses. The client is at 31 weeks with no reported cervical changes, contractions, or painless dilation, making this complication unlikely in the current clinical scenario.
- Placental abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to damage to the placental blood vessels. Signs of decreased fetal movement and the high-risk profile of preeclampsia support the concern that abruption could occur, leading to serious maternal and fetal compromise.
- Heart failure: Although the client has some edema, there are no other clinical signs such as dyspnea, crackles, or orthopnea that would suggest heart failure. The edema seen here is consistent with preeclampsia rather than decompensated cardiac function.
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