A nurse is caring for a client who has a fractured leg and rates their pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Hydrocodone

Acetaminophen

Fentanyl

Aspirin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Hydrocodone. This is an opioid analgesic appropriate for moderate to severe pain, such as a pain rating of 7/10. It is commonly used for acute pain management in cases like fractures and provides effective relief when non-opioids are insufficient.
B. Acetaminophen. While useful for mild to moderate pain, acetaminophen alone is likely inadequate for severe pain like that associated with a fracture rated 7/10.
C. Fentanyl. Fentanyl is a potent opioid used for severe or chronic pain, often in controlled settings such as surgery or cancer care. For an acute fracture, hydrocodone is typically preferred unless pain is extreme or uncontrolled.
D. Aspirin. Aspirin is primarily used for mild pain or anti-inflammatory purposes and is not appropriate as a first-line agent for severe pain. Additionally, it may increase the risk of bleeding, which is a consideration in trauma cases.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. 0.45% saline. This is a hypotonic solution, which may be used later in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) management, but it is not appropriate for initial fluid resuscitation as it does not rapidly expand intravascular volume.
B. NPH insulin. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin and is not used for continuous infusion. In DKA, rapid insulin correction is needed, typically with a short-acting insulin like regular insulin.
C. 0.9% normal saline. This isotonic fluid is the first-line choice for fluid replacement in clients with DKA. It helps restore circulating volume and correct dehydration quickly, which is a critical initial intervention.
D. Glargine insulin. Glargine is a long-acting insulin and not suitable for IV infusion. DKA requires the use of short-acting insulin (e.g., regular insulin) administered via IV infusion to correct hyperglycemia and acidosis.

A. The client is voiding at least 250 mL/hr. B. The client is maintaining bed rest. C. The client is tolerating clear liquids. D. The client is consuming 1.000 calories daily.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. The client is voiding at least 250 mL/hr. This amount is excessive and not typical. The expected urine output for an adult is at least 30 mL/hr, so 250 mL/hr could indicate overhydration or diuretic use, which is not expected postoperatively.
B. The client is maintaining bed rest. Early ambulation is encouraged after surgery to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and promote recovery. Bed rest 36 hours post-op is not expected unless medically indicated.
C. The client is tolerating clear liquids. After gastric banding, clients typically start with clear liquids and gradually progress to more solid foods. Tolerating clear liquids at 36 hours post-op is an expected and positive finding.
D. The client is consuming 1,000 calories daily. At this stage post-op, calorie intake is significantly restricted, often much lower than 1,000 calories. Intake gradually increases as the diet progresses from liquids to solids.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a fractured leg and rates their pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is admitting a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following types of continuous infusions should the nurse initiate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is monitoring a client who is 36 hrs postoperative following gastric banding. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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