A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?

Phenytoin.

Calcitonin.

Buspirone.

Fludrocortisone.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to control seizures and is not indicated for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency.
Choice B rationale
Calcitonin is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and hypercalcemia, not adrenal insufficiency.
Choice C rationale
Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to treat anxiety disorders and is not used for adrenal insufficiency.
Choice D rationale
Fludrocortisone is a synthetic corticosteroid that is used to replace aldosterone in patients with adrenal insufficiency. It helps maintain sodium balance and blood pressure.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Metoclopramide is not used to suppress cough. It is primarily used to treat nausea, vomiting, and gastroparesis.

Choice B rationale

Metoclopramide does not have a primary effect on muscle relaxation. Its main action is to increase gastrointestinal motility.

Choice C rationale

Reduced nausea is a primary outcome for evaluating the effectiveness of metoclopramide. It is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and vomiting.

Choice D rationale

Metoclopramide is not typically used to decrease pain. Its primary indications are related to gastrointestinal symptoms.

A. Thrombocytopenia. B. Neutropenia. C. Hypokalemia. D. Fever. E. Hyperglycemia. F. Dark stools.

Correct Answer is ["A","F"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Thrombocytopenia, a low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage when receiving heparin.
Choice B rationale
Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, does not directly increase the risk of hemorrhage. It is more related to infection risk.
Choice C rationale
Hypokalemia, low potassium levels, does not directly indicate a risk for hemorrhage. It can cause other complications but not specifically bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Fever is not a direct indicator of hemorrhage risk. It may indicate infection or other inflammatory processes.
Choice E rationale
Hyperglycemia, high blood sugar levels, does not indicate a risk for hemorrhage. It is more related to diabetes management.
Choice F rationale
Dark stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a sign of hemorrhage.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for metoclopramide. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the client is at risk for hemorrhage? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","F"]

Explanation

A nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been taking verapamil as prescribed for two months. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

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