A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?
Phenytoin.
Calcitonin.
Buspirone.
Fludrocortisone.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to control seizures and is not indicated for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency.
Choice B rationale
Calcitonin is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and hypercalcemia, not adrenal insufficiency.
Choice C rationale
Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to treat anxiety disorders and is not used for adrenal insufficiency.
Choice D rationale
Fludrocortisone is a synthetic corticosteroid that is used to replace aldosterone in patients with adrenal insufficiency. It helps maintain sodium balance and blood pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and treat cerebral edema. It does not affect thyroxine levels, which are related to thyroid function. Thyroxine levels are regulated by the thyroid gland and are not influenced by mannitol administration.
Choice B rationale
Mannitol is not used to correct atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that requires specific antiarrhythmic medications or procedures such as cardioversion. Mannitol’s primary action is to increase osmotic pressure in the kidneys, leading to diuresis and reduction of fluid in tissues, including the brain.
Choice C rationale
Mannitol is effective in reducing intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This reduction in intracranial pressure is a desired therapeutic outcome when treating conditions like cerebral edema.
Choice D rationale
Mannitol does not increase hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels are influenced by factors such as red blood cell production and destruction, iron levels, and overall health status. Mannitol’s mechanism of action is related to fluid balance and diuresis, not hematopoiesis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A neutrophil count of 650/mm³ is significantly lower than the normal range (2,500 to 8,000/mm³) and indicates neutropenia, which is a known adverse effect of zidovudine. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring and potential dose adjustment or discontinuation of the medication.
Choice B rationale
A platelet count of 450,000/mm³ is slightly above the normal range (150,000 to 400,000/mm³) but is not typically associated with zidovudine toxicity. Zidovudine is more commonly associated with bone marrow suppression leading to anemia and neutropenia rather than thrombocytosis.
Choice C rationale
An Hgb level of 17 g/dL is above the normal range for females (12 to 16 g/dL) but is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Zidovudine is more likely to cause anemia, leading to lower hemoglobin levels rather than elevated levels.
Choice D rationale
A creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is within the upper limit of the normal range (0.5 to 1 mg/dL) and is not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine. Zidovudine primarily affects the bone marrow and does not have a significant impact on renal function.
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